"Czechoslovakia '38-What If They'd Fought?"

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Potsdamerplatz
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#46

Post by Potsdamerplatz » 03 Jan 2007, 22:58

Nick89 wrote:What about Hungary's role? They used the crisis to seize parts of southern Slovakia and Ruthenia. It is possible they could have been drawn into the war as well.
I agree with you Nick. I think Hitler might have promised Ruthenia and part of Slovakia to Hungary if she would ally with Germany should it come to a war.

The Czechs would have fought hard though. We have seen from the statistics earlier on in this thread that they had a formidable army and tanks. Plus also the Czech land fortifications in the Sudetenland would have held up the German advance. This would have bought Czechoslovakia time to attempt to seek assistance from Great Britain and France.

In 1938 the German High Command was still plotting to overthrow Hitler until the Munich Pact was brokered.
Hitler’s plans to invade the Sudetenland caused the formation of a plot for a coup to overthrow Hitler, but that this plot was abandoned because of the Munich Pact. The success of Hitler at Munich, however, increased his prestige with all circles of the German people, including the higher military leadership.

THE GERMAN HIGH COMMAND TRIAL
UNITED STATES MILITARY TRIBUNAL, NUREMBERG,
30TH DECEMBER. 1947 - 28TH OCTOBER, 1948
Perhaps if there had been war with Czechoslovakia in 1938 it might have been enough for the army to overthrow Hitler. Germany was simply not ready for war in 1938 and the generals knew it.

Best regards.

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Tim Smith
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#47

Post by Tim Smith » 04 Jan 2007, 00:17

Anne G, wrote:
Tim Smith wrote: The best time to confront Hitler would have been March 1936, over the Rhineland, but the British and French people just didn't care at that time and had virtually no idea what Hitler and the Nazis were all about.
Maybe militarily, but at that time Hitler had "moral right"in his side even in the eyes of most other nations as Rhineland was a part of Germany.
Tim Smith wrote: Czechoslovakia October 1938 would have been the next best option. Hitler really wanted a war with Czechoslovakia (alone, without Allied support). If the Allies had backed the Czechs to the hilt, Hitler may have backed down.
I agree. Plus just then was the best possibility that the German army would have tried to throw Hitler from the power.

However, even then Hitler could base his claim on the nationality principle. President Wilson's 14 points guaranteed that the fronties are made acroos the nationality, in the Versailles treaty this was allowed to many other states but denied from Germany. (I don't necessarily agree with the principle if it causes a war, but I want to show how it caused a sense of unjustice among the Germans.)

Militarily, it was really good chance. Germany would have needed almost all his divisions confronting Czeckoslovakia, so it would have created a favorable situation in the French frontier though the French started armament much too late and the Bristish needed their army and navy also in other places around the world. (Of course, also Soviet Union had promised to help Czezkoslavia but I leave it now away from this scenario.)

Yet, it wasn't mainly Chamberlain's fault it came to nothing. The peoples of democratic counties don't want to go to war if they doen't feel it is morally right and absolutely necessary. That spirit lacked in September 1938.

Yet, let us assume that the British and French would have gone to war in 1939 and won Hitler. Would they have labeled imperialistic powers who have their own imperiums around the world but coundn't let the Germans unite? Or, if the German army threw Hitler from the power, could they persuade the German nation that this was the right way to prevent the worst of misfortunes?

Regarding the March 1936 option - France didn't care a damn what Germany's 'moral rights' were. France just wanted a weak Germany for as long as possible! For Germany to move troops into the Rhineland is a breach of the Treaty of Versailles, that's all the moral justification France needs to take action.

What frightened the French government from doing so was:
a) the possibility that Hitler might be serious about fighting, even in 1936, and even if he was very weak militarily, he'd have the entire German nation aroused in fury behind him;
b) the possibility that the French people wouldn't stand for even low casualties in a new war to uphold the Treaty of Versailles, no matter what the strategic gain to France would be by doing so;
and c) the possibility that Britain might stand by and doing nothing to help - or even (worse case scenario), given Edward VIII's sympathy to Germany, Britain might possibly even take Hitler's side and condemn a 'premature and unjustified' French invasion of Germany!


Anyway, supposing the Allies fought Germany in October 1938 and won, what would be the political outcome? Well, it depends on whether the German Army actually does overthrow Hitler, whether Hitler dies in the process or is captured and imprisoned, and on how the Allies treat Germany afterwards. For example, the French might demand that the German governmetn adhere to the Versailles Treaty again and reduce the German Army back down to 100,000 men, disband the Luftwaffe, and scrap all the Kreigsmarine's U-boats. Also the French and British probably would want to try and undo the 1938 Anschluss with Austria. Both measures would be very unpopular in Germany, and make it difficult for any 'de-Nazification' efforts by any new German government to succeed without long-term Allied occupation of Germany.


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#48

Post by PeterOT » 04 Jan 2007, 01:09

The great tragedy of Munich was that Chamberlain in particular listened to his 'big wing' men in the RAF, the guys who believed that strategic air power could & would decide the next war. They told Chamberlian that Britain could not defend itself against German bombing. They were wrong.

Lets say that Britain & France guarantee Czechoslovakia's security. Hitler needed to keep expanding & winning in order to guarantee his position, so he will still attack Czechoslovakia. There were senior Army figures who planned to remove Hitler if he did launch such an attack. However, given the woeful record of such plots, I'm going to assume it fails. The result is that there is a pre-war purge of 'suspect' officers. I'm not sure exactly who this would involve, but it will weaken the ranks of the wehrmacht & make it totally subserviant to Hitler's whims.

Before Hitler attacks, Britain & France launch a diplomatic offensive in Eastern Europe. Romania has always leaned toward France, so it promises to support the Czechs (though not necessarily with actual military forces). The Poles are warned off taking advantage of the Czech crisis wit the promise of UK/French support against Germany & Russia. The USSR does not do a deal with Hitler. It also pressures the Poles to leave the Czechs alone.

Hitler attacks, but this isn't like Poland 1939. Here's why:

1) German border defences in the West that are strong enough to hold up the French in 1939 are virtually nonexistent in 1938, and there are far fewer troops to man them.

2) The Germans were worried about the Poles, who had a large army. With Germany a lot less mechanized than in 1939, this makes the Poles a bigger threat. In fact, Germany spent a LOT of money & steel production in the late 30s constructing a 'mini-maginot line' along their vulnerable eastern border. This also leaves troops in East Prussia. They will be unable to reinforce those in Czechoslovakia.

3) The Czechs are much better equipped to blunt German attacks than the Poles were. Their border defences will force Germany to concentrate her limited armour & mech forces in predictable areas. The Czechs will be ready for them.

4) Czechoslovakia won't be attacked from 2 sides. Hungary won't attack, especially with the Romainan Army watching. It is likely that the USSR, Romania & perhaps even Poland will help with logistics - sending in spares & other supplies.

On the down side, the Czechs lack 'strategic depth'. They are vulnerable to the planned German pincer attack in the centre. There is also the issue of minorities, especially Sudeten Germans. This won't help.

There are a lot of myths about the conquest of Poland. The main one is that Germany just walked over the Poles. Despite all her advantages, german was actually pretty badly beaten up by the Poles. While she would have won anyway, the Russian intervention saved Germany from even more damage. It was actually the perfect war for Germany - hard enough to expose a lot of problems in the system, but not so hard that she was unable to recover well by 1940. Given the relative state of forces in 1938, the Czechs will make Germany suffer. badly.

I believe that major combat will probably be over within a couple of months, perhaps three at the outside, but the result will be a wehrmacht & luftwaffe crippled by the effort. This is especially true of the mechanised formations. The Czechs may hole up in the Slovakian mountains and fight on for months more. It is one giant mess for Germany.

There will be no German invasion of France in 1939. Not only is the German military more beaten up than in the real 1939, but much of the Czech equipment so valuable in 1940 is ruined. Czech industry is also damaged by the war. Worse, Germany has a number of hostile nations on its eastern borders. Italy stays out of the war, Mussolini deciding that his 'new Roman Empire' isn't worth the risk. France will not fall. If there is a continuing war with the West, Germany will eventually lose it.

This is actually the good scenario for Germany. There is an even worse possibility - The allies bomb a Germany whose airforce is tied up in Czechoslivakia and French troops cross the German border & occupy the Rhineland. This is 'game over' for Hitler. If the Czechs are still fighting he can't win. At this point even a subserviant military will oust him & cut a deal with the West to salvage what they can.

Attacking Czechoslovakia would have been a disaster for Hitler.

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1938 addendum

#49

Post by PeterOT » 04 Jan 2007, 03:09

I forgot to mention something REALLY important - oil.

There was an extrememly good chance that Romania would have cut off oil exports to Germany in the above scenario. Without the Nazi-Soviet pact Germany would also not have recieved the petroleum & other goodies she got from Russia from 1938-1941. Add to this an allied naval blockade & you are probably relying on Mussolini smuggling in your fuel. You want to rely on that?

Romania supplied something like 50% of Germany's petroleum products. I'll be charitable & assume that Germany had enough for a war with Czechoslovakia (I am probably being too charitable here). But beyond that, things look VERY grim. Without sufficient oil products there is not only no invasion of France, but the German economy begins to disintegrate.

Bye bye Adolf.

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Baltasar
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#50

Post by Baltasar » 04 Jan 2007, 13:23

PeterOT wrote:This is actually the good scenario for Germany. There is an even worse possibility - The allies bomb a Germany whose airforce is tied up in Czechoslivakia and French troops cross the German border & occupy the Rhineland. This is 'game over' for Hitler. If the Czechs are still fighting he can't win. At this point even a subserviant military will oust him & cut a deal with the West to salvage what they can.

Attacking Czechoslovakia would have been a disaster for Hitler.
You are aware that allied bombing in OTL proved to be ineffective quite a long time?

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Tim Smith
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#51

Post by Tim Smith » 04 Jan 2007, 16:21

Baltasar wrote: You are aware that allied bombing in OTL proved to be ineffective quite a long time?
Ineffective in actual physical damage to key German war industries, yes.

Ineffective as a propaganda measure, no.

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#52

Post by Carl Schwamberger » 05 Jan 2007, 00:44

"Ineffective as a propaganda measure, no."

Even a few hundred dead & some buildings set fire would have been fodder for hysteria & many newspaper headlines. The bombing of Guernica was considered a major catastophe at that time.

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#53

Post by PeterOT » 05 Jan 2007, 13:28

Baltasar wrote:
PeterOT wrote:This is actually the good scenario for Germany. There is an even worse possibility - The allies bomb a Germany whose airforce is tied up in Czechoslivakia and French troops cross the German border & occupy the Rhineland. This is 'game over' for Hitler. If the Czechs are still fighting he can't win. At this point even a subserviant military will oust him & cut a deal with the West to salvage what they can.

Attacking Czechoslovakia would have been a disaster for Hitler.
You are aware that allied bombing in OTL proved to be ineffective quite a long time?

Balthasar,

You are, of course, correct. Tim & Carl above have pointed out, however, the issue of propaganda. In a situation where Hitler was already unpopular with his Generals and engaged in a war that was not so quick & painless as hoped, it may have helped to turn people (both broadly & specific important people) against him.

I should probably have made clear my thoughts on strategic bombing.

As you might have picked up from my reference to the role of the 'big wing' boys in the leadup to the Czech crisis, I have an exceptionally low opinion of the role of strategic bombing in WW2. Had it been left up to its exponents, Britain would have lacked credible air defences when war broke out. Until the development of long range fighters in 1943-4 the promises of the 'big wing' boys turned out to be bogus. Even then, supporters of what was supposed to be a war winning weapon are left claiming it 'diverted' rescources, or simply over claiming what was achieved.

While there was some damage to industry, strategic bombing rapidly deteriorated into a terror weapon. In doing so the big wing boys actually managed to tarnish a cause that is as good as any for which humanity ever fought.

Still, the situation in 1938 was different from what actually unfolded. Bombing Germany would certainly have diverted air power from the Czech campaign, though probably not enough to change the outcome. As I said, I think the real impact would have been political, not military.

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Tim Smith
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#54

Post by Tim Smith » 05 Jan 2007, 15:32

To be fair to the 'bomber boys', up until the late 1930's, the bomber actually was a very formidable opponent for a biplane fighter armed with two machine guns.

In WW1, shooting down a well-flown, modern enemy two seater was more difficult and dangerous than shooting down an enemy fighter. Many two-seaters were as fast or nearly as fast as the latest single-seat fighters, and quite agile too. (The Bristol Fighter particularly so.) And the heavy bombers like the Gotha and Handley-Page armed with four or five machine guns were very, very tough indeed for one fighter to bring down.

In the 1920's and early 1930's the bombers became monoplane designs, while the fighters stayed as biplanes armed with 2 rifle-caliber machine-guns. Even though the biplane fighters became faster, they were often not much faster than the monoplane bombers - and the monoplane bombers were tough to shoot down with only 2 machine guns.

This was what led Stanley Baldwin to say that "the bomber will always get through" and led many senior air force officers in several countries to believe that the only effective counter to an enemy bomber force smashing up your cities was to have an even bigger bomber force of your own to smash up the enemy's cities even more.

Only the advent of modern monoplane fighters like the Me 109, Hawker Hurricane and Morane MS.406 in 1937-38 changed this situation.

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#55

Post by Potsdamerplatz » 05 Jan 2007, 16:00

This has been one of the best "What If" threads I have read on the forum. I would just like to thank everyone for their well-argued arguments and also special thanks to PeterOT for his excellent recent posts. I have very much enjoyed reading this thread.

Best regards.

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#56

Post by Baltasar » 05 Jan 2007, 17:59

According to the few german sources I have at hand, in OTL the early British bombing attempts during '39, especially during the Polish campaign, were small and inflicted only minor damage if they hit anything at all that is. The reports tell about raids of a dozend or so bombers, inflicting little to no damage at all, not even moral damage, even though I don't really have reliable sources on the latter matter. In general, only few fighters engaged the bombers and in most cases they were confronted with AA fire of various calibres.

Assuming that the Allies would behave during the Czech war the same way as they did during the historical Polish campaign, I don't see them inflicting much damage on the German war effort. However, I would assume that the Wehrmacht would have a harder time knocking the Czechs out than Poland, and that is keeping in mind that the latter also put up a great deal of a fight.

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Re: But it could have gone the other way too....

#57

Post by janosik007 » 04 Feb 2007, 21:31

Serus wrote:
glenn239 wrote:If war had broken out in 1938, the likely sequence of German conquests would have changed significantly - the critical ommision being Poland in 1939.

Assuming that Germany were to defeat the Czechs, and then the French in turn (and I admit this is a big assumption), then Poland probably falls into line with the Axis after the fall of France, rather than being partitioned before it. If German forces jump off on the 1938 Soviet-Polish border with 30-40 Polish division in attendance, then Russia probably falls.
I disagree - German attack on France with Poland behind was very unprobable from German point of view (remember Polish-French alliance is still valid) - the risk is too big, French-German border is relatively short with good defensive values and Poland is weaker than France, can be conquered faster --> "Poland first" is the only logical option for Germany, fall of Czechoslowakia in 38 doesnt make any difference imo.
On topic: War with Czechs in 38 = weaker Wermacht in 39/40, great risk for Hitler of being couped by the military, if Czechs are not conquered very fast. And too many variables to point out (what is Soviet/Polish/French/British reaction, what about Hitler? Perhaps he wanted the war in 38 but General Staff was aware that army is not ready, and more...)
Hello all, I was searching for some online material concerning this very question. Since this is a very intelligent discussion using good facts and suumptions I wanted to add my voice.

Fist, let me address the statement above which further discussion overlooked. I agree with previous statements supporting the idea that the War of 38 would result, at best for the Germans, in a slow and costly victory, but more likely, in defeat. I believe that evidence presented thus far points to this conclusion. Even the mention of the "What if" book which through scholarly research comes to this conclusion (anyone actually read the book to summarize for us?). I do not believe that same fate would await CS as awaited Poland. I think we can all agree that CS had far more advanced military technology and infrastructure that would allow it to more effectively wage a total war (My father who served his compulsory training on western Czech border told me about these massive fortress structures that were impermeable by any firearms -except bunker destroying missiles- almost 40 years after). Another thing is the comparative military capabilities between Germany of 1938 and 39. As it has already been pointed out, in a matter of just a short year, Germans were able to make strides in their armament technology (thanks also to Skoda auto giant) and tactics of blitzkrieg, which would be of little use against mountainous terrain and fortresses (and these two together made the defensive structure much more effective compared to Maginot-line which was exposed on a flat plains and forests), were not yet tested out against a determined foe. Lastly, the alliance system was different. When Poland was advanced, it was attacked on two fronts and it was alone in fighting. Czechoslovakia could still fallback on USSR. Had Benes agreed to the helping hand of Russians, which in retrospect was more of a counter-NAZI defensive move than -as it might have been perceived by Benes- as an attempt to partition the land with Germans. Even without Western support, Czechoslovakia using its circumstances to its fullest advantage, could have pulled out of it a victor.

Second, there is a large misconception to how split Czechoslovakia truly was. The notion that the society was splintered between a halfdozen ethnic groups ready to explode into multiple pieces like Austria-Hungary did just 20 years earlier, is flawed. Because Czechoslovakia was a peaceful, prosperous, and democratic country, it had a legitimate claim to rule over all of its citizenry. The conditions of living in CS were higher than in any of its neighbors. It was the economic and political envy of Central and Eastern Europe, in this respect. True, there were some activities that tried to splinter CS, but the alternative for these groups seemed far worse. Germans would be the most prominent group, and most exertive, for that matter, in promoting secession. Hitler employed clandestine operations hoping that those alone could bring CS to its knees and Sudet to him. These attempts escalated into a military uprising, but almost instantly failed as Czechs installed martial law and peace in that region. Magyars would be the second group to consider. They were the ultimate losers of WW1, but if you look at the economic conditions, those that remained in Hungary were the bigger losers. Living condition of Slovak Magyars were far higher than those in the volatile Hungary which has in 20 years undergone regime changes of all variety on the left-right continuum. Slovaks might have been discontent over the Czech dominance of CS and pushed for greater equality, but separation was a dangerous prospect in a hostile fascist world and memories of Magyarization were only too fresh. Separation could only be conceived only when CS partitioning would become a real choice. If only Sudet was on the line, its life was safer with Czechs. Someone wrongfully pointed out to Ukrainians as another group. First, the only Ukrainians were the "intelligentsia" that fled Bolsheviks and Polish into a peaceful CS and its Eastern Carpathian province, SubCarpathian Rus. There they spread the slander of Greater Ukraine and have actually gained support from some portions of the populace, which explains the name Carpatho-Ukraine adopted by Rus during its brief one-day independence. The people themselves, their langauge and culture is through-and-through Rusyn. I know, because I am one. Polish call us Lemko and Ukrainians Hutsul or Boiko (people themselves think of us as non-Ukrainians, but when the elite is bent upon expansion, that becomes the agenda). The decision of Rusyns to join with CS after WW1 is in many respects surprising and complicating. At first Russia was the obvious choice as they considered themselves to be part of the Great Russian family (there were proponents for Ukraine but this was even more unrealistic). CS became the best decision. After it was made, Rusyns showed dedication and loyalty to stand by it, even when Czechs were failing to carry out their promises of greater autonomy. In fact there were Lemkos left in Poland which also voted to join CS, but as that became unrealistic because of other territorial commitments and squabbles with Poland, Romania, and Hungary, a short-lived republic of Florynka came into existence. The greatest case of Rusyn commitment to CS is exemplified by the fact that the of the exile Czechoslovak army fighting with Soviets, almost half were Rusyns.

Overall, CS had the capability to at least prevent the same that happened to Poland, and at most repel Germans. At most I agree with Peter OT.

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#58

Post by glenn239 » 05 Feb 2007, 20:14

Czech defenses do indeed appear to have been formidable. However, Czech resolve did not match the sturdiness of their fortifications (it to be noted that Chamberlain wasn't stopping Benes from fighting in September 1938, nor was he responsible for Prague's still-formidable army rolling over without a shot in March of 1939).

The question seems to revolve around the probable behaviour of Italy, Hungary, Poland and the Soviet Union if such a war had broken out - in particular, Stalin's choice. Since Moscow's demands for passage across Rumania and Poland were impossible for the west to fulfill or for the small eastern nations to entertain, it seems optimistic to me that these powers would have collectively solidified into a unified anti-Nazi front. On the contrary, since Hitler was willing to deliver to Stalin what the west would and could not, in all probability the Soviet Union of 1938 foreshadows its choice of 1939 by supporting what Stalin perceived to have been the weaker player - Hitler. If this arrangement occurs, then the choices of the smaller powers (Poland, Rumania, etc.) scarcely matter.

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#59

Post by janosik007 » 05 Feb 2007, 22:07

When your supposed and powerful allies decide on giving your terrain to Hitler, they are not saying 'go ahead, fight'. Going it alone would be a suicide, but Soviets would eliminate that problem. This topic isn't about recanting events that happened as it is about 'what if' Situation was wastly different in 39 then 38, militarily and defensivelly.

I don't see how Soviet helping hand stretched out and unaccepted against the Nazi's in 1938, foreshadows anything, but a meatgrinder between the two. Even their non-aggression pact shows nothing beyond an uneasy and temporary peace.

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#60

Post by glenn239 » 06 Feb 2007, 03:09

To be clear on the point. Real nations don't permit third parties to consign them or their territory to oblivion. They fight, and when they throw down, they don't care a bloody tick about the odds against them. Google "Soviet Union Finland war 1939" for an example of what I mean.

Personally, I think this thread is exaggerating the alleged opportunity. The Czechs no doubt would have put up a good scrap. But the German and Slovakian elements of their army would have folded up; the Germans would have gone through them like Paris Hilton through her latest boyfriend's wallet. Poland? Poland wasn't going to do anything - they had the Red Army breathing down on them. All those self-appointed self-important German generals who talked the talk to their new taskmasters after the war would not have walked the walk in 1938 - that revolt nonsense was all a bunch of self-serving prattle, IMO.

The reason I suggest Stalin would have sided with Nazi Germany in 1938 is because he chose to do so in 1939 - and that tiger didn't change his stripes. Chamberlain was no dummy. He knew that if he took Britain to war in '38 that he'd put Stalin in the driver's seat - which meant the end of the Baltic States and Poland. Chamberlain folded a bad hand in hopes of getting a better one the next time. The talk of Russia supporting Prague was as meaningful as the wind behind Hitler's generals - Stalin was looking to carve an empire in Eastern Europe; it was Hitler that was willing to do the deal with him and France and Britain were not. There's Stalin's support of Prague.

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