Why did Imperial Germany perform so well in World War I (in spite of its ultimate defeat and loss)?

Discussions on all aspects of the First World War not covered in the other sections. Hosted by Terry Duncan.
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redcoat
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Re: Why did Imperial Germany perform so well in World War I (in spite of its ultimate defeat and loss)?

#166

Post by redcoat » 24 Oct 2016, 08:04

fwilliam wrote:
You are so right that domestic economic factors, mainly the result of the Royal Navy's "illegal" blockade, more than military ones led to Germany's seeking of the armistice.

I say "illegal" only because the British, masters of the seas for 400 years, demanded that Germany's uboats adhere to the so-called "law of the sea" in conduct of their operations. In other words, surface, warn the target you were about to sink her, allow the opposing captain to evacuate the crew and then, after sinking the target, radio the coordinates so that a rescue could be effected.

Now at the same time, Britain proceeded to secretly arm her merchant ships in direct violation of international law AND regularly shipped military contraband about passenger ships as on the Lusitania. Yet, "unrestricted submarine warfare" if often cited as a primary causus belli for the pro-British Wilson. Admittedly the Zimmerman Telegram was a "gaffe" worthy of our current presidential candidates, but the blockade of Germany was clearly aimed at innocent civilians. Yet seldom is that factored into the equation. Either memories are selective or the adage that "He who controls the message, controls the debate" as clearly demonstrated by Britain's code breaking abilities. Of course it didn't hurt their cause as the four separate trans-Atlantic cables passed through the British Isles at some point.

It also supports the maxim, "The winners write history."

Eismann
Arming merchant ships and military contraband on passenger liners were both perfectly legal under the accepted naval laws in this period.
The problem for the Germans was that the rules were written before the advent of submarines, therefore the problems they faced attempting to stop ships far larger and more powerful than them were not recognised in the rules.

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Re: Why did Imperial Germany perform so well in World War I (in spite of its ultimate defeat and loss)?

#167

Post by antwony » 25 Oct 2016, 16:05

Attrition wrote:
Avner Offer (The First World War: An Agrarian Interpretation) concluded that the winter of 1916-1917 and the autumn of 1918 saw a net food shortage but the real problem was distribution. Masses of people trekked into the country in 1918 to glean food, when they were supposed to be making shells and bullets.
Am quite certain I haven't read Offer, but have read another work (whose name escapes me at the moment) which came to the same conclusion.

The distribution problems were blamed on all of Germany rolling stock being required for military purpose, as well as, all horses and trucks being requistioned by the army.
fwilliam wrote:but the blockade of Germany was clearly aimed at innocent civilians.
Suspect it's rather pointless to disagree with you, but I'd counter that the blockade was aimed at preventing the importation of strategic resources required for the war industry. The "Jews and the Communists" "starving" and "stabbing the German Army in the back" was just a happy coincidence (that didn't occur).
fwilliam wrote:It also supports the maxim, "The winners write history."
Would very much disagree with this as well. Various German narratives concerning WW1 have been given far too much credence, as well as, western narratives lacking, for want a better word, the level of triumphalism that should accompany such a great victory due to the horrors of that war.


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Re: Why did Imperial Germany perform so well in World War I (in spite of its ultimate defeat and loss)?

#168

Post by Tanzania » 25 Oct 2016, 21:41

antwony wrote:
Attrition wrote:
fwilliam wrote:It also supports the maxim, "The winners write history."
Would very much disagree with this as well. Various German narratives concerning WW1 have been given far too much credence, as well as, western narratives lacking, for want a better word, the level of triumphalism that should accompany such a great victory due to the horrors of that war.
From a `winner-point-of-view´, quite understandable, but this would mean to decline the `human factor´.

It´s really a `What if question´; but how would the `objective take of historiography´ would have written down
nowadays if the Central powers would won the 1. WW. - In the same way? - For certain not!

If this would be our nowadays reality; we would change only our positions; you would mention:
“The winners write history”. And I have to reply: “Would very much disagree with this as well” :wink:

Cheers Holger
“Day by day and almost minute by minute the past was brought up to date. . . . All History was a
palimpsest, scraped clean and reinscribed exactly as often as was necessary” – G. ORWELL 1984

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