Nazi Attitudes Towards Arabs ,and Muslims
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Nazi Attitudes Towards Arabs ,and Muslims
What was the Nazi atttude towards Arabs ,and Muslims?
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You might check out this site http://notendur.centrum.is/~snorrigb/mufti4.htm as it somehow explains the relationship between most Arabs and the Nazi ideology. As you might have guessed the Jewish and the Arabs were still fighting for Israel&Palestinian territories, and such a Anti-semite ideology which was adopted by the Nazis were like an utopia to them. Still we cant say the Arabs supported the Nazis, you know its just politics and politics are always different then what nations really think.
To add further information 13th SS Division of the Waffen-SS was made up mostly of muslims, and the 21st SS also had a good percentage of muslims.
Regards
Kaan
To add further information 13th SS Division of the Waffen-SS was made up mostly of muslims, and the 21st SS also had a good percentage of muslims.
Regards
Kaan
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Not to hear them tell it. I knew a number of Iranians back when I was in college.Panzer Leader wrote:Aren't the Iranians somehow related to German Tribes who migrated to Persia
An Iranian exile (at the time they called themselves Persians, in the early-80s it was not good to be an Iranian in the US-even if you were exiled because the pro-Shah Iranians bolted from the country when the Ayatollah took over) with sandy blonde hair and green eyes informed me that he was a descendant of tribes from the Caucasus Mountains (orgin of the word "caucasian" which has become a polite euphemism for "white") who had migrated there.
Apparently the Turks coveted the women of this culture for their unusual coloring-Caucasian girls disappered into many Turkish harems. However, they are a minority in Iranian society. Most Iranians are descended from Semitic (Arab) peoples (although it wouldn't surprise me that there are Hellenic ancestors a long way back from Alexander the Great's conquest of Persia), and have dark hair and dark eyes.
Phoenix
that's not true. the relationship between iranians and germans is a misconception.
the story started in 1500s when europeans in India noticed strange resemblance between sanskrit and greek-&-latin. of course, you know about the Indo-european language family discovered later on. but some linguists decided to use "aryan", which is a sanskrit word, to designate this language family. "aryan" of course means "noble people" in sanskrit, and in the reconstructed proto-I-E language, it just means "people" (like the greek anthropos). Iran, of course, means "the land of the aryans." later people take the name out of linguistics, and somehow the linguistic relations become a "racial one". the reality is that, a group of people speaking the proto-I-E language immigrated to both west and east either from southern russia (the old, sort of discredited theory) or turkey (the new theory) and somehow imposed the language on indigenous peoples they encountered, and that's why both europe and south asia have linguistic ties. but just as the native americans that speak english today are not "racially" (if you want to use this inaccurate word) affiliated to the english people (unless you go way back in time), so indians/iranians don't have immediate ancestral connection with europeans.
the story started in 1500s when europeans in India noticed strange resemblance between sanskrit and greek-&-latin. of course, you know about the Indo-european language family discovered later on. but some linguists decided to use "aryan", which is a sanskrit word, to designate this language family. "aryan" of course means "noble people" in sanskrit, and in the reconstructed proto-I-E language, it just means "people" (like the greek anthropos). Iran, of course, means "the land of the aryans." later people take the name out of linguistics, and somehow the linguistic relations become a "racial one". the reality is that, a group of people speaking the proto-I-E language immigrated to both west and east either from southern russia (the old, sort of discredited theory) or turkey (the new theory) and somehow imposed the language on indigenous peoples they encountered, and that's why both europe and south asia have linguistic ties. but just as the native americans that speak english today are not "racially" (if you want to use this inaccurate word) affiliated to the english people (unless you go way back in time), so indians/iranians don't have immediate ancestral connection with europeans.
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