1943 famine in India -- British act of genocide?

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Led125
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Re: 1943 famine in India -- British act of genocide?

#121

Post by Led125 » 26 Sep 2010, 21:23

The crucial question is: Why were imports of food into India reduced after the beginning of the war, and why did food exports exceed imports in 1942/43?

It is difficult to make a judgement, since we do not have before us figures on internal food producrion in the set of years for which Led125 has provided figures for net food imports into India.

it may be that the variation in net annual food imports in the years from 1931/32 to 1938/39, from a low of 630,000 tonnes to a high of 2,294,000 tonnes, simply reflected variations in internal production, with net imports simply covering shortfalls in internal production, which varied from year to year. But we do not know that.

It could be that the gradual reduction in net imports after the start of the war, until they became negative in 1942/43, may reflect an increasing level of internal production, with imports less necessary to meet internal demand, and even an exportable surplus in 1942/43. However, Led125 has assured us that there was a general food shortage in India, and that was one of the causes of the famine.
Sir Henry Knight, by providing us with enough information to calculate India’s production of food, allows us assess this position. In 1936/37 India produced 71.498 million tons of food and imported 1.245 million tons of food. However the next year India produced 70.892 million tons and imported only 630,000 tons, and the year after that India produced 65.853 million tons and still only imported 1.044 million tons.

Thus we can conclude that the imports of food to India were (mostly) unconnected with variations in India’s actual production of food.

The reason for the reduction of imports after the war began is obvious. There was a war on the shipping was used for purposes aside from supplementing Indian food consumption. Nobody has claimed otherwise.
If there was a general food shortage, then the net food exports of 1942/43, even though of a relatively low magnitude in comparison with the magnitude of previous net food imports, must have represented a further reduction of food availability in India, and indicate a British policy of extracting food from India in order to use it for other consumers considered more important, regardless of the effect on the Indian population.

Since there was a net outflow of food in 1942/43, and a famine began in the latter part of that fiscal yesr and grew increasingly worse in the following year, it is reasonable to assume that there was a causal relationship between the two phenomena.
This of course leads you to ask another question: if the reduction of imports ‘’caused’’ the famine, then why was it more or less confined to one part of India? Your assumption would be reasonable if the deaths were spread evenly across India. The answer to the question is that whilst the shipping situation did cause shortages in India, it was not life threatening, and it was a fungus of the rice crop that caused the famine.

It seems strange that the British rulers of India would suddenly withdraw food from India, when in the preceding years internal production had had to be topped up by net food imports; they surely must have realised that such a withdrawal would cause a food shortage that might develop into a famine. It suggests that the British rulers were at least recklessly heedless of the effect of their food management policies on vulnerable populations in India.
Therein lies a paradox with your central thesis: it also suggests that British rulers were sufficiently responsive to change their policy when they recognised the disastrous effects it was having.

This of course ignores the fact that none of that has been supported by anything aside from your opinion (‘’they surely’’, ‘’they must’’).
Although it is obvious that the British rulers did not have a deliberate policy of reducing the Bengali population through man-made starvation, it is understandable why many Indians regard the British policies of the time as criminally negligent and indicative of a colonial master's indifference to the fate of a subject population regarded as racially inferior.
Do you have any evidence that feelings of racial superiority had any influence on the course of the famine?

Ypenburg
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Re: 1943 famine in India -- British act of genocide?

#122

Post by Ypenburg » 27 Sep 2010, 01:16

[quote="Tosun SaralThere is no Turkish Armenian Genocide but a deportation of Armenians living in regions behind the Turkish 3rds Army. [/quote]
The rules of this forum regarding holocaust denial also apply, for example, to the mass murders of Armenians during WWI, and the interwar famine in the Ukraine.
:roll:

Google translation of a Dutch newspaper, June 6. 1921:
http://kranten.kb.nl/view/article/id/dd ... 01%3Aa0004


THE MURDER OF A MILLION BOX.
Already during the war was now over and whispered that the Turks had deliberately killed hundreds of thousands of Armenians. But who then wanted to talk about was the allegation that he was anti-German, silenced. Now, however, the full and terrible truth to light. Berlin has been tried by the assassin of the Turkish statesman-Talaat Pacha. This Turk has to make during his life have known that he had solved the Armenian problem. Well, in hearing the case of the now-acquitted murderer appeared, in which solving the Armenian problem by the Turks existed. The corr. of MSB. writes: The witnesses on the trial of the assassin of Talaat 'Pacha, beards, especially the statements. the wife of the tobacco manufacturer Paschian a sensation. She told from her own experience of the terrible events of horrors, the mass deportations committed by Turkish soldiers. She narrates how people related to each other and were thrown into the water or men in front of their wives were slain or maimed. Prof. Niemeyer notes that, although her statements sound quite amazing: when someone would doubt the accuracy thereof, he would like to state that thousands of such atrocities are committed. This is followed by the exhibiting photos of the two experts. Professor Lipsius treat the Armenian question, after the President asked the question whether the atrocities had occurred significantly and that the testimony of the accused and the witnesses believe may be attached. Professor Lipsius says: "The general order for deportation in April 1915 was given by the Young Turk Committee, Talaat Pasha as minister of internal affairs and Enver Pasha as minister of war. This command has a few exceptions the entire Armenian population was affected. Before the war there were 1,850,000 Armenians.

Hef was ordered that the Armenians were to be driven more Mesopotamian desert. The East Anatolian-Armenian population has barely reached 10%. The other men, women and children go through hunger, disease and murder died. These facts are taken from the reports of the German Ambassador and Consul Chen. In the opinion of the ambassador at Constantinople are a million Armenian men, women and children perished. The Southern Anatolian deportees was slightly better condition. Systematically, and in the manner gruwzaamste were deported to death. Once the concentration camps were overcrowded, the Armenians were in masses driven into the desert and there slain. It was the aim of the Turks to exterminate an entire people. Only the boldest and most inhuman methods could in such a short time a million people be slain. That is determined by a court-martial, in 1919 Talaat Pack Enver Ley and other young Turks convicted. Spared only 200,000 Armenians in Constantinople, Smyrna, and Aleppo. The cause of the mass killings was under Professor Lipsiu, mainly in the fact that the Armenian issue to a division of Turkey might lead it and so did all that destruction was not Turkish. These statements were then some comments by Liman von Sanders military position added. He said everything happened in Armenia, from two viewpoints should be considered: 1st. was the Young Turk government in 't position of the deportation of Armenians and one second. the fighting that took place in Armenia, only it incurred, that the Armenians were defending themselves and would not settle into a disarmament. The Young Turk government, far. cleared, he has ordered to deport Armenians talle of messages from civil and military authorities. The German Government had done what they could and often through the envoy Metternich atrocities against the Armenian position taken. That German officers had participated in such atrocities, was definitely untrue. How far and Talaat Pasha was involved personally in the regulations, Liman von Sanders could not say. The painting of the massacres of Armenians were also confirmed by a Catholic bishop from Manchester who had come to Berlin. Witnessed repeatedly in Armenia was in the years 1915 and 1916. He himself was deported and declared that a plan to have existed and been ordered all Armenian men, women and children to kill .


michael mills
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Re: 1943 famine in India -- British act of genocide?

#123

Post by michael mills » 27 Sep 2010, 02:32

Sir Henry Knight, by providing us with enough information to calculate India’s production of food, allows us assess this position. In 1936/37 India produced 71.498 million tons of food and imported 1.245 million tons of food. However the next year India produced 70.892 million tons and imported only 630,000 tons, and the year after that India produced 65.853 million tons and still only imported 1.044 million tons.

Thus we can conclude that the imports of food to India were (mostly) unconnected with variations in India’s actual production of food.

The reason for the reduction of imports after the war began is obvious. There was a war on the shipping was used for purposes aside from supplementing Indian food consumption. Nobody has claimed otherwise.
Our thanks to Led125 for providing us with the above information, which allows us to see how decisions made by the British Government on the allocation of transport resources in the context of its war effort contributed to a million-fold mortality of a civilian population under its control.

In 1936/37, total food availability in India was 72.743 million tons (domestic production of 71.498 million tons plus net imports of 1.245 million tons). In 1937/38 total food availability fell to 71.522 (domestic production of 70.892 million tons plus net imports of 0.630 million tons). In 1938/39 food availability fell precipitately to 66.897 million tons ( a greatly reduced domestic production of 65.853 million tons, plus net imports of 1.044 million tons).

Thus it can be seen that food availablity within India was progressively falling in the years leading up to the war, with the British rulers of India not providing sufficient imports, or not cutting back sufficiently on exports, to make up for declining domestic production. It is possible that that declining food availability, which would have to be covered by drawing down on stocks, created the context in which the famine occurred, with the war situation simply exacerbating the decline in food availability.

Given the above data, the claim made by Dr Polya, that the failure to meet the annual grain import requirement (note: not actual imports, but the imports required to make up for shortfalls in domestic production) progressively increased, and that that failure led eventually to famine, has some weight, even if expressed in rather sensationalist terms.
This of course leads you to ask another question: if the reduction of imports ‘’caused’’ the famine, then why was it more or less confined to one part of India? Your assumption would be reasonable if the deaths were spread evenly across India. The answer to the question is that whilst the shipping situation did cause shortages in India, it was not life threatening, and it was a fungus of the rice crop that caused the famine.


The reason why the famine occurred only in Bengal was that the overall food shortage became more acute there, with local food availability falling to a level below that required to prevent mass starvation. It may be that a fungus of the rice crop, and also storm damage, exacerbated the food shortage in Bengal, but those factors did not cause the famine in that area, since the worsened food shortage caused by a partial failure of the rice crop could have been made up by imports of sufficient food from other parts of India or from outside India to prevent the food shortage developing into a famine causing a million-fold mortality.

The reason why sufficent imports of food from other parts of India did not occur was because of the overall food shortage, which had been caused by the pre-war failure of the British rulers of India not to import sufficient food to make up for a decline in domestic production.

The reason why sufficient imports of food from outside India did not occur, ie from places like Australia or Argentina where domestic production was far in excess of domestic consumption and huge amounts of food were being exported, was because the British Government decided not to divert exports from those countries to India, but to continue them to places that in the view of the British Government had a higher priority.

Thus, the essential factors that turned a local shortfall in food production into mass starvation were decisions by the British Government. While those decisions may be entirely understandable, in the context of fighting a war, and are not necessarily criminal, nevertheless they did contribute to mass mortality in a civilian population under British control.

David Thompson
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Re: 1943 famine in India -- British act of genocide?

#124

Post by David Thompson » 27 Sep 2010, 05:32

An unsourced, off-topic post from Tosun Saral about the WWI Armenian massacres in Turkey was deleted by this moderator. The now unnecessary response from Ypenburg will be moved to an appropriate thread, since it is sourced. - DT

Led125
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Re: 1943 famine in India -- British act of genocide?

#125

Post by Led125 » 29 Sep 2010, 13:09

Michael,
Sir Henry Knight also shows that India’s exports declined during the pre-war years as well. Some of his figures for India’s total food production in the war years are higher than during some peacetime years which means we can’t really say that India’s food production was progressively declining.

If a great deal of wheat is extracted in one year then by that December the harvest would have replenished it (as happened when the aman harvest in December 1943 turned out to be large). Any starvation deaths caused by excessive exports would thus be contained in that year. I doubt that the great export of food grains in the pre-war could contribute to starvation years later, because it wasn’t successive and we have no evidence that it was coming out of India’s stocks (as opposed to the leftovers that India was able to produce for herself). Remember that after 1902, Bengal only suffered what we might term ‘almost famines’ about four times.

You haven’t actually determined that India had a ‘’requirement’’ of around 1. 8 Million tons of food per annum in the pre-war years, all we’ve got is one internet source that states that it did. The rest of your post on pre-war excessive exports hinges on that statement.
The reason why the famine occurred only in Bengal was that the overall food shortage became more acute there, with local food availability falling to a level below that required to prevent mass starvation. It may be that a fungus of the rice crop, and also storm damage, exacerbated the food shortage in Bengal, but those factors did not cause the famine in that area, since the worsened food shortage caused by a partial failure of the rice crop could have been made up by imports of sufficient food from other parts of India or from outside India to prevent the food shortage developing into a famine causing a million-fold mortality.
In actual fact the decline cause by the diseased rice crop was significant; possibly a third of Bengal’s production of rice. That it took such a massive decline in one year to cause mass death doesn’t suggest that excessive exports or the failure to provide more imports caused the famine. We can certainly say that they possibly aggravated the situation, and certainly by being unable to provide more imports one of things that would have mitigated the famine were not taken.
There are also other problems with your hypothesis that I asked you to resolve yet you have not:

If there was a progressive decline in the food availability in India caused, or was a significant cause, of the famine, then why did the deaths take place in 1943 rather than in 1942, why did they not continue into 1944 or 1945 as India was still not getting what was required. If India had been progressively deprived of food in the run up to the war, and more so during the war years, then 1942, when India’s net import level was at its worst, should have been the year of mass death. Certainly, we would have expected the mass death to continue into 1944 and 1945 as India’s net imports would have still not been enough to compensate for years of declining food availability.

Also, your hypothesis suggests that Bengal was moving slowly towards disaster for years; in fact, observers in 1939 and 1940 did not expect this crisis. Harvests were plentiful, legislation favourable to peasants had just been passed and a shortage of food in 1941 was easily handled.

Sid Guttridge
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Re: 1943 famine in India -- British act of genocide?

#126

Post by Sid Guttridge » 30 Sep 2010, 14:53

Silly question. There is a difference between responsibility for mass deaths and genocide.

The Bengal famine victims formed the vast majority of all British Commonwealth military and civilian deaths during WWII. They should not be ignored, but should be discussed in their true context.

Genocide requires a focused act of political will to exterminate a people. This was clearly not British policy at the time of the Bengal famine. India's population grew massively under British rule precisely because British central government and British-built railways had improved the distribution of food. There is nothing in the pre-war record that indicates that the Bengal Famine would have claimed so many (or perhaps any) lives had the war not distorted British priorities.

That said, had the British set different priorities and acted differently, these deaths were still very probably avoidable. This makes them ultimately a British responsibility.

Finally, consider this when weighing the genocide charge. British and Indian nutritionists developed the Bengal Famine Mix to try to save lives during it. When the British discovered the malnourished and dying inmates of Belsen Concentration Camp, they served this same Bengal Famine Mix to try to save them.

Does anyone seriously imagine that if the Germans had come across the Bengal Famine they would have had a Belsen Concentration Camp Mix available to try to save Indian lives?

Of course not!

Why? Because Belsen was a (peripheral) part of a genuine genocide programme in which no priority was placed on saving the lives of victims. Hence the absence of any notional Belsen Concentration Camp Mix.

By contrast, the Bengal Famine was not a part of a genocide programme and, albeit too late, real efforts were made to save lives. Hence the Bengal Famine Mix.

British responsibility - Yes.

British genocide - No.

PFLB
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Re: 1943 famine in India -- British act of genocide?

#127

Post by PFLB » 04 Oct 2010, 05:29

In michael's view, which according to him is also everyone else's view, 'genocide' simply means causing a large number of deaths.

ChristopherPerrien
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Re: 1943 famine in India -- British act of genocide?

#128

Post by ChristopherPerrien » 15 Oct 2010, 08:37

Every year they have a "famine" in Bengal/Burma/Bagladesh/whatever, they call it "Monga". It is worse or better depending on the particular year, but it happens regardless of war or who was/is running the show there. Something so "cyclic" and natural and common to that area, cannot be labeled genocide no matter how or when you slice it.

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Peter H
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Re: 1943 famine in India -- British act of genocide?

#129

Post by Peter H » 02 Oct 2011, 05:28

Australia is also blamed. :o

http://www.just-international.org/index ... Itemid=123
However Australia 's role in the Bengali Holocaust is a very well kept secret and for good reason. Australia was (and is) a major wheat producer and in the period 1939-1945 produced about 24 million tonnes of wheat (1 tonne = 0.98 long ton), the breakdown (in millions of tonnes) being: 4.0 (1939), 2.2 (1940), 4.5 (1941), 4.3 (1942), 3.2 (1943), 1.5 (1944) and 4.0 (1945). [4]

About 9.4 million tonnes or 40% of Australia 's wheat production was exported, the breakdown (in million tonnes) being: 2.0 (1939), 2.0 (1940), 1.0 (1941), 1.0 (1942), 1.5 (1943), 1.5 (1944) and 0.4 (1945). [5].

Only a maximum of about 1.8 million tonnes of wheat - out of 13.0 million tonnes of wheat produced in Australian in 1942-1945 or of the 4.4 million tonnes of wheat exported from Australia in 1942-1945 - was sent to starving India (an alternative source having been British-occupied Iraq), with most one presumes being sent off to shore up Britain's huge war-time food surplus. Only a maximum of 0.9 million tonnes of Australian wheat made it to starving India in the key famine years of 1943-1944.

Australian racism cannot be ignored. Australia only abolished the obscene anti-Indian, anti-Asian, anti-African White Australia Policy in 1974 and has an appalling secret genocide history involving 24 genocide atrocities, 10 of them ongoing. [6].

Australia , like Britain , has compounded its appalling crimes by re-writing history. Thus a recent quick search of a major Australian university library produced 7 histories of Australia of which none mentions the Bengal Famine. However some honest Australian writers have told the Awful Truth about the Bengal Famine - read Gideon Polya's “Jane Austen and the Black Hole of British History” [1] and other writings, Colin Mason's “A Short History of Asia” [7] and Tom Keneally's “Three Famines” [8].

While Australian media resolutely ignore the Bengali Holocaust and Australia 's part in it, a recent news report from the taxpayer–funded ABC (the Australian equivalent of the UK BBC) refers to a ban on wheat exports during the Second World War. Reporting about the Murtoa Stick Shed, the largest timber-frame structure in the state of Victoria, known as the Cathedral of the Bush and built in 1941 to store wheat, the ABC's Guy Stayner reported (26 September 2011) “There were several sheds hastily built during the 1940s to cope with a wheat glut after a ban on exports during the second world war but the Murtoa stick shed is the last one standing.” [9] According to the Murtoa Stick Shed website: “There were many others erected around Southern and Western Australia during WW2 when they were used as temporary storage for wheat, which could not be exported at the time.” [10]....

...Australia played a quiet and cowardly role in the British-imposed WW2 Bengali Holocaust that should be exposed, the more so since Australia - a nation that has exterminated all but 50 of 250 Indigenous languages and Aboriginal nations, with the rest at great risk [8] – has the effrontery to demand a seat on the UN Security Council. Perhaps the Murtoa Stick Shed should be retained as a memorial to Australia 's part in Britain 's deliberate starvation to death of 6-7 million Indians in World War 2. Australia should be brought to account internationally for its role in the WW2 Bengali Holocaust (6-7 million killed)...

Led125
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Re: 1943 famine in India -- British act of genocide?

#130

Post by Led125 » 02 Oct 2011, 16:00

I just want to come back to two separate points that were raised a while ago and have been bothering me ever since.

Firstly, India's food "requirement" of 2 million tons pre-war. I came across an article in Sankhyā: The Indian Journal of Statistics (Vol. 22, No. 1/2 (Jan., 1960)) by P.C. Bansil. I will quote the following:

"This analysis of India's foreign trade in wheat and rice would show that it was always governed by the pricing parity prevailing in the international grain market."

He makes the point that India didn't import around 2 million tons per year because without it she would starve, but due to other factors, especially pricing parity in the international market: "Our analysis in the preceding pages is sufficient to refute the accepted theory that India's emergence as a net importer of foodgrains was erely due to the pressure of population. As we have discussed at length, imports or exports of foodgrains were governed by factors other than production or consumption in India".

Second issue that bothered me was Michael Mill's attempt to attack Dr Peter Bowbrick's qualifications. Michael didn't provide this part of his website:

"PhD Henley

M.A. Human Relations Nottingham

Diploma in Agricultural Economics, Oxford

B.Sc. (Econ.) Hons., London.

Research Fellow, Henley, The Management College (Brunel) 1990-5. Part time research, when not working on consultancy.

Research Associate, Queen Elizabeth House, Oxford University, 1988-90. Part time research, when not working on consultancy.

Visiting Academic, Institute of Agricultural Economics, Oxford University, 1982.

Senior Research Officer, Irish Agricultural Institute, 1972-80.

Research assistant, Department of Land Economy, Cambridge University, 1969-72"

http://www.bowbrick.org.uk/#ACADEMIC QUALIFICATIONS

Hmmmm, this is quite a striking résumé for someone who, according to Michael Mills, 'just does not seem a reliable sort of person'.

sandeepmukherjee196
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Re: 1943 famine in India -- British act of genocide?

#131

Post by sandeepmukherjee196 » 28 Dec 2015, 08:27

I have not posted anything on AHF for a long time due to certain critical and pressing professional / occupational crises. However I couldn't pass this one up.

I am a bengali, born in Bengal (Calcutta) and currently living here. My family elders were mostly around during the '43 famine. When I went through the semantics and micro data in this thread, I couldn't but shake my head in wonder at the purely academic nit picking that was often in evidence here.

Please do note:
* Bengal is a riverine area..and a part of the extremely fertile Indo-Gangetic plain. Rice is the staple food for Bengalis. Paddy(rice) is the main crop. It grows easily and abundantly in this area.
* Fish is the primary accompaniment with rice in a Bengali diet. Being the confluence of multiple major and minor rivers, and with the Bay of Bengal at the south, fish is abundantly available too.
* The rural areas were the worst hit in the famine. However it is the rural areas which grow rice ..thats where the agricultural lands are.
* A famine killing millions is not about "food shortage" .. its about food scarcity. There is a quantum difference between the two.
* People in the rural agricultural areas start to die when there is absolutely no food available locally...and no replenishments from outside.
* Crop failures are not something unique in rural areas and historically such things have caused distress. Famine too wasnt visiting for the first time in Bengal's history. It had happened before. Food shortages continued off and on post independence too, till the Left Front Govt., in Bengal brought in sweeping land reforms post 1977.
* It doesnt matter whether the British culpability for the Bengal famine was genocidal in nature as per some wise academician's definition in small prints. Churchill personally diverted the grain ships with full knowledge of the consequences. The local British regime in India stood by and let it happen.
* It left a permanent scar on Bengali society.

Ciao
Sandeep

Sid Guttridge
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Re: 1943 famine in India -- British act of genocide?

#132

Post by Sid Guttridge » 30 Dec 2015, 21:57

Hi Sandeep,

You write, "Churchill personally diverted the grain ships with full knowledge of the consequences."

Do you mean that ships already loaded with grain for India were diverted with their cargos?

My understanding is that the differential decision to use the shipping elsewhere for other war purposes occurred at an earlier stage. It was not that food destined for India was diverted on the high seas, but that the shipping was never allocated to Indian needs in the first place.

Either way, Britain, which was custodian of the lives of its Indian subjects, must bear ultimate responsibility for the consequences because most, perhaps all, the deaths were avoidable if other differential decisions has been made.

There would doubtless have been some cost to the Commonwealth war effort elsewhere, but it is difficult to believe that this would have amounted to anything approaching the deaths of a million or more British subjects, such as occurred in Bengal.

Cheers,

Sid.

sandeepmukherjee196
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Re: 1943 famine in India -- British act of genocide?

#133

Post by sandeepmukherjee196 » 01 Jan 2016, 17:58

Hi Sid...

It has been implied above in this thread that hoarding etc exacerbated the famine, thereby Churchill's regime stands excused!


A new research based book has been published last year on the subject of man made famines : "Eating People Is Wrong, and Other Essays on Famine, Its Past, and Its Future", Cormac Ó Gráda.
eating people.jpg
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Given below is the author's summary :

"The 1943-44 famine has become paradigmatic as an “entitlements famine,” whereby speculation born of greed and panic produced an “artificial” shortage of rice, the staple food. Here I have argued that the lack of political will to divert foodstuffs from the war effort rather than speculation in the sense outlined was mainly responsible for the famine"


On this subject, after Prof Sen, another Indian researcher did sterling work. Madhusree Mukherjee, in her Churchill's Secret War, a brilliant expose has been made about the cause and effect relationships that led to the Bengal famine in '43. Her work has the added attraction of correlating Churchill's stated and demonstrated attitude towards Indians and particularly Hindus, to his acts of omission and commission a la the famine. Given below are excerpts from the book review
( ref : http://varnam.nationalinterest.in/2011/ ... mukherjee/ )
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"....In Madhusree Mukherjee’s book, Churchill is neither a lion nor a man of great moral rectitude. He was a man who could have prevented three million Indians from starving to death, but did not. Clouded by racist views of Indians, he even stopped other countries from helping the starving population, antagonised the US president with his stand on India and argued that the Atlantic Charter did not apply to British India. Despite all these, when the first words of Paul Johnson’s biography states that Churchill was most valuable man to the whole of humanity in the 20th century, one has to wonder about the lack of perspective behind that testimonial.

The famine

Between 1941 and 1942, three events occurred which turned out to be disastrous for the people of Bengal. First, fearing the Japanese invasion of India, the War Cabinet ordered a scorched earth policy in areas which would have to be surrendered. Rice was removed or destroyed. Money was advanced to businessmen to buy and hoard. Along with this, boats, much needed by farmers, fishermen and potters for their livelihood were destroyed.


Second, there was a massive cyclone which killed around 30,000 people. Besides the death and damage, the cyclone also caused the price of existing rice to go up. Finally, the Japanese arrived in Burma and cut off the millions of tons that Bengal used to import from Burma and Thailand. Thus the stage was set for famine.

Britain’s focus during this period was to make sure that the war production was not affected:Indian industries were involved producing ammunition, uniforms, parachutes, vehicles and machine parts. The government machinery ensured that people in Calcutta—soldiers, war workers, government employees—became the priority class and sufficient rice was stocked up to feed them. The choice was between war efforts and large scale deaths in rural areas.

These rural deaths could have been avoided if the government imported grains, but Churchill was unwilling to provide shipping. We can understand why the government denied permission to Subhas Chandra Bose who wanted to send rice to Bengal, but how do you explain Churchill turning Canada away citing wheat shipment to India as an ‘uneconomic prospect’? The argument that providing ships for India would mean less ships for war effort falls flat because ships became available for Churchill’s pet project of stocking grains for the newly liberated European countries. For this, ships carrying wheat went from Australia to various countries around the world, navigating around a starving Bengal.

Ms Mukherjee argues that India was intentionally punished due to three reasons. First, Churchill’s primary goal was to ensure that British citizens did not have to follow an abstemious lifestyle. Statisticians estimated the food required and Churchill ensured that shipping was available for this. The prime minister had other calculations as well. He knew that Britain would be bankrupt after the war and wanted to stock up. He also knew that in the post-war period, there would be great demand for food in Europe which could be an excellent business opportunity.

Second, Churchill knew that India was slipping from his hands and did not care much. British rule was symbolised by Robert Clive’s memorable trip down the Ganga carrying barges filled with money. The economic balance of power was shifted by a 1940 arrangement by which war expenditure incurred by India had to be paid by Britain and the bills were accumulating. India had become a major creditor or in Churchill’s words—the biggest war profiteer. This was a serious issue and Churchill thought of various ways to not pay India back which included changing the exchange rate or presenting a counter bill to India for defense expenses.

Finally, Churchill hated Indians and more specifically, Hindus. “They are a beastly people with a beastly religion” were his exact words. But he did not wanted to let go of the cash cow and wanted to keep it for a few generations mostly on his terms. Roosevelt tried to get Churchill to negotiate with the nationalists without much luck. Churchill did not want to leave India for the nationalists; his spin was that there would be no future for Untouchables, Muslims and other minorities under Congress which he saw as a ‘Caste Hindu’ enterprise. While he used every opportunity to widen the communal chasm, he argued that the British had to stay in India for the benefit of the minorities.

Churchill saw the famine as a failure of the Indian government in redistributing the excellent harvest; importing grain would not have made any difference according to him. Ms Mukherjee says that this is a fallacious argument for there was no efficient way of redistributing grain to rural areas. Also, the government did not want to procure grain from Punjab—whose soldiers were battling in Middle East for Britain—and upset the farmers. When finally the grain from Punjab did reach Bengal, it never went beyond Calcutta. If Churchill had abandoned his overweening ego and imported grain as the famine set, Ms Mukherjee argues that it would have caused the hoarders—who included government supported businessmen—to release the grain and reduce prices. The War Cabinet acknowledged this, but by then it was too late.

Churchill’s priority simply was Britain and the execution of the war and he would do nothing to jeopardise it. Much later when Punjab had a bad crop and there was fear of desertion by Punjabis in the Indian Army, Churchill was ready to budge. When it became obvious that the Allies would not be able to take on Japan without India’s help, with sufficient persuasion by army officials, tons of food made its way to India.

The familiar pattern of historiography

Churchill's Secret WarWhen it comes to the historiography of the famine of 1943, it follows the same pattern as in the historiography of the war of 1857 or river Sarasvati: many inconvenient truths are suppressed. Churchill’s tome of the war does not mention the famine. The famine commission ignored the scorched earth policy and the fact that aid was refused. According to the Communists the blame lay purely with everyone else—speculators, Japanese—but the British. They stayed out of jail. The British blamed the Indians, United Nations and even God. Another member of the War Cabinet blamed crop failure and high birthrate. In short, the British negligence and Churchill’s role in the shipping crisis etc were simply washed away. Arthur Herman’s Gandhi and Churchill blames Churchill briefly, but Ms Mukherjee’s book fills the vacuum and refutes the popular narrative by quoting chapter and verse from the national archives, War Transport ministry’s logs and the recently released transcripts of the War Cabinet meetings.

The book provides sufficient context for the events of 1943. After giving a brief history of British rule in India and the changes they made which went against Indian polity, Ms Mukherjee dilligently follows the strategies of the Allied and Axisl powers, Mahatma Gandhi, Subhas Chandra Bose, Mohammad Ali Jinnah and Franklin D Roosevelt as well as the uphill battle of British administrators against Churchill’s advisers like Lord Cherwell, who believed in the Malthusian population theory. Even when it comes to documenting the efforts by British administrators in intentionally fanning the Hindu-Muslim communal divide, Ms Mukherjee does not walk on egg shells.

The most heartrending portion of the book is when Mukherjee writes about people who survived the famine. Through interviews with them she reconstructs the holocaust of 1943 and those vignettes are hard to read. In the midst of famine, people had to find ways to survive. Some women survived as domestic help or by providing child care. Others had to resort to prostitution. Unable to feed their children, some parents sold them or simply threw them into the river. Dead bodies piled along the roads as people tried to make their way to the cities...."


The victors who created the New World Order, post WWII, tailormade definitions to suit them. War Crimes, Genocide et al...meant different things when applied to defeated nations then and later. The applications and interpretations were different when applied to the victorious nations. That's the way of the world...down the ages.

Ciao
Sandeep

Sid Guttridge
Member
Posts: 10162
Joined: 12 Jun 2008, 12:19

Re: 1943 famine in India -- British act of genocide?

#134

Post by Sid Guttridge » 03 Jan 2016, 13:49

Hi Sandeep,

I have Churchill's Secret War, which was why I was querying the propostion that "Churchill personally diverted the grain ships with full knowledge of the consequences."

The review says, "These rural deaths could have been avoided if the government imported grains, but Churchill was unwilling to provide shipping."

This was my precisely point and was why I wrote, "My understanding is that the differential decision to use the shipping elsewhere for other war purposes occurred at an earlier stage. It was not that food destined for India was diverted on the high seas, but that the shipping was never allocated to Indian needs in the first place."

it is entirely fair to implicate Churchill in the decision making and to question his motives, but overstating the case doesn't serve the argument well.

Cheers,

Sid.

sandeepmukherjee196
Member
Posts: 1524
Joined: 07 Aug 2014, 06:34

Re: 1943 famine in India -- British act of genocide?

#135

Post by sandeepmukherjee196 » 03 Jan 2016, 19:24

Hi Sid....

Then why were so many German generals and politicians hanged for complicity in spite of not having blood on their hands directly?

Ciao
Sandeep

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