James A Pratt III wrote:Someone doesn't like my comments
If that was directed at me, sorry buddy but I didn't mind your comments. My apologies if you thought I was disagreeing with you.
My comments were more directed at another American poster on this thread who, in different thread, claimed the US "won" WW1 and now on this thread is claiming the US Navy, an organisation that didn't learned till well in 1918, after over a years coaching by an actual navies i.e the RN and the French, how to hit moving targets, would have been anything more than useless at Jutland and that (somehow) a crushing victory of the Germans at Jutland would make much of a difference anyway.
South wrote:Good morning Antwony,
May I ask you to clarify / "flesh out" the international standards in re "real war". I just can't guess at the criteria in re the use of lethal force projection for political reasons. A couple of examples will help.
Plus:
I'm also missing the US pre-WWI lethality in re organized labor and its uniqueness. Here, too, I can't figure out the contrast - not saying it didn't exist; just need some examples to view the contrast.
Thanks in advance.
~ Bob
eastern Virginia, USA
Good Afternoon Bob,
Should probably say sorry about the real war thing. But that other poster really annoys me.
A river runs through my hometown, in Australia. Guys from north of the river served in 1 Brigade, 1 Division in WW1, while guys from the south were, largely, scattered atound 3DIV. 1 Briagde suffered immense casualties in WW1, 3DIV less so.
Didn't actually make a huge difference in town, but the neighbouring communities to the south continued to prosper and develop after WW1. The towns to the north didn't so much stagnate, as shrink, as the communities' young ladies moved elsewhere as there was a serious shortage of young men in those areas post 1918.
WW1 was a "real" war for Australia. Have seen state based stats on casualties in the US Civil War. I know you know what a "real" war is.
I get annoyed when an ignoramus, quoting a single, extremely moronic source (Mosier) talks garbage about WW1. That's where the real war comment comes from.
South wrote:Plus:
I'm also missing the US pre-WWI lethality in re organized labor and its uniqueness. Here, too, I can't figure out the contrast - not saying it didn't exist; just need some examples to view the contrast.
Thanks in advance.
~ Bob
eastern Virginia, USA
History of organised labour isn't really my thing, so unique probably wasn't the best word for me to use. The French had had a quite tumultous ~100 years preceding WW1 and know Marx wrote a lot about France.
But yeah, wiki's got a page on the other Virginia.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Category: ... t_Virginia. Notice you list your location as eastern Virginia...
We know from what actually happened, that (the western members of) the Entente didn't really have serious labour issues.
From what I understand the AEF tried to limit the amount of volunteers and relied on conscription.
Presume the National Guards units, which had earlier been used as strike breakers were all volunteers.
Point I was hinting at was if the Pinkerton's, etc... weren't enough, a conscript army may not have been so effective at suppressing political dissent.
Antony
P.S. Eastern Virginia is the part the Carter Family's not from right? Is there much of a cultural divide from where you're from and places further back in the hills? Wiki doesn't have a page for "Labor disputes in Virginia".