Plausibility Check: A Germano-Franco-British ultimatum to the USSR after a quick end to WWII?

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Futurist
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Plausibility Check: A Germano-Franco-British ultimatum to the USSR after a quick end to WWII?

Post by Futurist » 29 Dec 2019 03:45

If the 1940 Nazi invasion of France would have somehow failed and internal opponents of the Nazis in Germany would have subsequently staged a successful coup against Hitler and the Nazis, and the Anglo-French and the new German government would have actually been able to make peace, would it have been realistic for Germany, France, and Britain to subsequently give an ultimatum to the Soviet Union to withdraw from eastern Poland and the Baltic countries and to threaten the Soviet Union with war if the Soviets will refuse to obey this ultimatum?

The Anglo-French logic behind such a move would be obvious--they would want to restore Poland's eastern lands or at the very least to hold a free and fair plebiscite there in order to determine these lands' future fate. Britain and France might feel that it is no more justified for the Soviet Union to conquer these lands without holding a plebiscite there than for Poland to conquer these lands without holding a plebiscite there. As for Germany, Britain and France could theoretically offer Germany a carrot--as in, Germany (which, remember, is no longer led by Hitler and the Nazis but rather by a more conciliatory post-Nazi regime) supports Britain and France in regards to this, and Britain and France could agree to hold a free and fair plebiscite in Danzig and some or all of the Polish Corridor in exchange for this. That way, Germany is virtually guaranteed to at least get Danzig if it cooperates with Britain and France in regards to pushing the Soviet Union out of its 1939-1940 territorial conquests.

Anyway, any thoughts on this?

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