1. If Britain decides to remain neutral in World War I for whatever reason(s), would the Imperial Germany Navy ever actually have the capacity to launch attacks at French colonies--whether in North Africa (Algeria, Tunisia, Morocco, et cetera) or elsewhere? The logic behind this would be to district from the Western Front and demoralize the French while also portraying Germany as a liberator to the Muslim world. If Germany will actually portray itself as liberating Muslims from the yoke of French colonial tyranny, then maybe more Muslims worldwide would have heeded and obeyed the Ottoman Sultan's/Caliph's call to jihad against the West during World War I. I mean, it's worth a shot, right? Also, just how strong was the German Navy in comparison to the French Navy, especially in regards to distant power projection? It's not like Germany is actually going to have any naval bases near North Africa, after all.
2. In the event of a late German victory in World War I (so, no US entry into World War I, no unrestricted loans to the Entente, and possibly Germany actually being willing to make concessions in the West (plebiscites in Alsace-Lorraine, Trentino, et cetera, along with a German withdrawal from Belgium) in exchange for it being given a free hand in the East), would it be both possible and realistic for Germany to make a deal with the Russian Whites during the Russian Civil War where Germany would help them to the maximum extent possible in exchange for them agreeing to the Daugava-Dnieper Line--or, alternatively, an equivalent of the World War II Panther Line (in red zigzags on the second map below here) as the new Russian western border? :
https://archive.md/Cw2uA
https://upload.wikimedia.org/wikipedia/ ... _grand.jpg
(The main difference between these two lines is that Germany will also get Livonia and Estonia in the second line as well as slightly more of southern Ukraine.)
Such a deal would be a partial reversal of Brest-Litovsk in the sense that it would give the Russian Whites most or all of Ukraine east of the Dnieper-River--but of course they would also have to give up most of Belarus in exchange for this. But one could say that the Russian territories west of the Dnieper and south of the Daugava weren't Russian for all that long anyway since they only became Russian in the late 18th century with the Partitions of the Polish-Lithuanian Commonwealth. And of course the Russian Whites should be quite happy with any territorial deal that strips Russia of most of its Jewish population, no?
Anyway, what do you personally think about this?