No, you didn't write, "both groups were allocated similar genocidal food quotas". Please check.
In fact, in December 1941, it appears that Poles were allocated 654 calories, whereas Jews were allocated just 184. How is this "similar" or "marginally better".
Certainly neither were ultimately survivable on, but it is clear that Poles would last much longer than the Jews. Besides, even urban Poles were potentially able to supplement their rations, whereas the Jews in the sealed ghettos had far less chance to do so (see below).
If the food allocations were purely based on their value to the Germans, then why was there any racial differentiation? Were useless Poles somehow more valuable than useless Jews? Uselessness is uselessness, surely?
And why didn't the Jews have money to buy food? They were, after all, resented for their education and relative communal wealth. They ought to have had more money for it than the Poles.
Remember, there was no physical barrier between rural and urban Poles, but there was between the Jewish ghettos and all Poles. Not only were Jewish rations less, but the fact of ghettoisation made it far more difficult for Jews to supplement their already lower rations than it was for urban Poles, let alone rural Poles
So, you are still being evasive about providing any evidence that rural Poles were eating better than Berliners, even after being asked five times for some sort of sourcing. (And remember, I find it plausible and am not inherently hostile to the proposition. I just want some evidence. It is your resistance to giving any sourcing that is beginning to sow seeds of doubt.)
You do realize that (1) we are meant to give sourcing on AHF and (2) the longer you delay in doing so, the more it discredits everything else you claim?