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However, my question is this--why weren't the heavily German parts of Transylvania also given to Hungary in 1940?
This map of Austria-Hungary's ethnic groups in 1910 shows that southern Transylvania had a sizable German minority:
https://upload.wikimedia.org/wikipedia/ ... ic.svg.png
However, for some reason, Hungary didn't get the German-majority parts of Transylvania in 1940:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Second_Vi ... ethnic.svg
Why exactly did Hitler allow Romania to keep the heavily German parts of Transylvania?
Any thoughts on this?
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The first explanation that comes to mind about Hitler's decision is that as it was difficult to please both sides he decided to divide Transylvania between them. However, it has been suggested that he split Transylvania so that in the future he could dangle in front of both countries the possibility of one of them receiving it all.
Hungary may have been bluffing when it made its territorial demands but it now showed its gratitude. The Germany minority in Hungary which presumably now included some in Transylvania were granted special rights. A deal was done over industrial raw materials and agriculture. Restrictions on the fascist Arrow Cross movement were lifted and racist laws aimed at Jews brought in.
Bulgaria had also made a territorial claim on Romania settled in early September. Hitler guaranteed Romania's new borders so the country now sheltered under the German wing safe from its antagonistic neighbours. After the conference an agreement was signed with Germany that guaranteed the rights of the German minority in Romania. In September a pro German coalition government took over that included the Jewish hating fascist Iron Guard.
The German minority in both countries was now legally protected and if the agreements were broken Hitler had an excuse to intervene. Is there any evidence that by 1940 the Germans in Transylvania would have preferred coming under Hungarian rule?