If Israel had not the right to judge Eichmann,no other country had this right : the Jewish inhabitants of Israel were the victims of Eichmann : they were those that Eichmann had not been able to kill.There was only ONE country that had the right to judge Eichmann, as there was only one country that had the right to eliminate Bin Laden .gebhk wrote: ↑22 Sep 2021, 22:49Because the court had no jurisdiction, pure and simple.Why would the court,the trial and the sentence have no legal standing ?But not of any Israelis. Israel did not even exist when the crimes he was accused of were committed.Eichmann was accused to be responsible for the death of 6 million JewsNo he wasn't, he was in Argentina, as you well know so israeli justice had no jursidiction to arrest him, let alone put him on trial. And even if he was in Israel, that still did not give the Israeli courts jurisdiction because the acts he was accused of were not committed in Israel (or even against Israeli citizens, though that is of secondary importance).he was in Israel,thus he could be liable to a trial by an Israeli courtIndeed they did not, the foreigners in this instance being the Israelis.Foreigners had no business in this trial .Eh?? Who nullified what sentenced?Only an Israeli court could nullify the trial/sentence . Not a foreign court .Correct, but he hadn't.If he had killed an Israeli citizen in Israel, he would also compare before an Israeli court .You now seem to be arguing against yourself. If you agree that those committing crimes against French citizens on French soil should be tried by a French court, why do you argue the opposite when it comes to Eichmann?After the war, officers of the SS division Das Reich compared before a French court for what they had done at Oradour . No one said that they should be judged by a non French court .
The Israeli court did not arrest Eichmann in Argentine,but in Israel .That what Eichmann did,did not happen in Israel is irrelevant .ISIS murdered Americans outside the US, but this does not mean that the US had not the right to arrest,judge,eliminate the responsibles .
Why do I argue the opposite when it comes to Eichmann ? Because the alternative was that Eichmann would continue to live in Argentine,without ever been judged,without ever being condemned .
If there was after WWI an Armenian state, would it not have the right to arrest,judge and condemn the responsibles for the killings of countless of Armenians that happened before the existence of the Armenian state ?
About Oradour : no one said that a French court could not judge the responsibles because the French could be biased .Thus,why should an Israeli court not have the right to do the same ?
The argument of bias can not be used .