In 1941, could the Germans have produced more locomotives?

Discussions on the economic history of the nations taking part in WW2, from the recovery after the depression until the economy at war.
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Der Alte Fritz
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Re: In 1941, could the Germans have produced more locomotives?

Post by Der Alte Fritz » 16 Dec 2019 10:59

Staehl is correct in what he says however this fails to take account of the structure of European railways created by the Reich Ministry of Transport. They wanted to protect the Reichsbahn for the domestic economy so when countries were occupied that were not incorporated into the Reich, they created or changed national railway companies such as SNCF and SNCB into operating companies run by the existing national personnel. In most occupied companies these companies were controlled by the Wehrmacht and hence beyond the operational reach of the RVM which means that the initial response to the Eastern crisis was from the DRB. Only later did the RVM wrest control from the military and allow transfer of French engines to the East.

As regards the Polish Gap the RVDs did make great strides in bridging it with the Ostbau projects (a good guide to what needed to be done) and even the Soviets noted the large improvement when making reconnaissance in late 1943/44. But that was two years too late.

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