He didn't really need an excuse to attack his partners or allies like the SU or Hungary.TheMarcksPlan wrote: ↑02 Feb 2020 21:14Say more but maybe in another thread? How does Hitler justify (politically not morally) invading Italy? His Fascist ally...
Maybe provocation to war? As in "not an ounce of coal until you win a darn battle?" Until you send me 2 million workers or 10,000 finished guns?
http://www.ibiblio.org/hyperwar/AAF/AAF ... ffe-7.htmlUnexpectedly high stocks captured in Italy in 1943 also helped in early 1944. In fact, over the winter of 1943-44, the Germans built up aircraft fuel reserves for the first time since 1941. From a reserve of 33,786 tons in November 1943, the special reserve had grown to 119,738 tons by May 1944. Its existence provided a substantial cushion in meeting the fuel crisis of the early summer.
See also: https://youtu.be/UEDkKZ2uwmI?t=567
It says that the economic exploitation of Hungary doubled or tripled after the German occupation.
Also, Portugal controlled strategically important tungsten resources, which they didn't fully gave the Germans. They also had a population of 7.7m in 1940, and given the "nutritional exploitation" of Norway, where the daily nutrition per capita fell from 2500 calories to 1500 and lower, millions of Germans could have been fed better. This is also true for Spain, that had a 26m population back then.
Also, the minor Axis allies' contribution for the war effort was limited, but they possessed some military infrastructure. For example, the Hungarians produced planes and tanks, but in such a low quality that they didn't influence the war. And when the government of Hungary wanted to buy the license for the Panther tank, the Germans gave an offer which disguised a refusal. The same goes for Italy btw, where the Germans didn't have the time to start mass production.
Furthermore, over one million Germans still lived outside the Reich, in Romania, Hungary, Slovakia, etc. A lot of them were eligible for conscription. See this one: https://youtu.be/UEDkKZ2uwmI?t=1016
Even in 1944, the Reich could conscript 160,000 ethnic Germans in Hungary only.
Had these (and other) countries been occupied in 1940/1941, the Germans could also gain a lot of them. It also seems that some countries didn't really put up much of a resistance against German occupation, so it is safe to conclude that it was a viable option to gain short-mid term means to defeat the BE.