At what point did Germany lose WW2?

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jesk
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Re: At what point did Germany lose WW2?

#1216

Post by jesk » 18 Sep 2019, 21:21

ljadw wrote:
18 Sep 2019, 08:36
Forczyk is wrong,totally : he is comparing apples with oranges . Germany needed mobile forces for an advance to the AA line in August 1941, but the SU was not planning an advance to Berlin in August 1941, thus it needed less mobile forces,or better: its needs for mobile forces were smaller and they could do it without them .Besides : you don't need mobile forces to stop the advance of enemy mobile forces .
What is it? Meaningless conclusions. Everyone needs mobile units. :)

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Re: At what point did Germany lose WW2?

#1217

Post by jesk » 18 Sep 2019, 21:24

HistoryGeek2019 wrote:
18 Sep 2019, 10:03
Germany's only hope for victory is to keep this a limited war with France and Britain.

But Hitler and a lot of his commanders, especially Raeder, had delusions of Germany becoming a world power, so they thought they could simply conquer one country after another and no one would be able to stop them.
And this is ridiculous. Completely ignores thousands of pages of history. Germany could even destroy the bridgeheads in Normandy. The landing in Sicily became successful only because Hitler mistakenly expected new landing operations in Greece, Corsica and Sardinia. Without this, Germany easily created superiority in Sicily.


ljadw
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Re: At what point did Germany lose WW2?

#1218

Post by ljadw » 18 Sep 2019, 21:31

jesk wrote:
18 Sep 2019, 21:21
ljadw wrote:
18 Sep 2019, 08:36
Forczyk is wrong,totally : he is comparing apples with oranges . Germany needed mobile forces for an advance to the AA line in August 1941, but the SU was not planning an advance to Berlin in August 1941, thus it needed less mobile forces,or better: its needs for mobile forces were smaller and they could do it without them .Besides : you don't need mobile forces to stop the advance of enemy mobile forces .
What is it? Meaningless conclusions. Everyone needs mobile units. :)
Infantry and artillery can stop tanks .The allied advance by mobile forces was stopped in September 1944,altrhough the German Westheer had few or no mobile units .

jesk
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Re: At what point did Germany lose WW2?

#1219

Post by jesk » 18 Sep 2019, 21:37

The Leader.

The Leader's Headquarters. 26th July, 1943. 17 copies

Directive No. 48 -- Command And Defence Measures In The Southeast

I. The enemy's measures in the eastern Mediterranean Sea area, in conjunction with the attack on Sicily, indicate that he will shortly begin landing operations against our strong line in the Aegean Sea, Peloponnese-Crete-Rhodes, and against the west coast of Greece with offshore Ionian islands.

Should the operations of the enemy extend from Sicily to the mainland of southern Italy, we must also reckon with an assault on the east coast of the Adriatic Sea, north of the Straits Of Otranto.

The enemy's conduct of operations is also based on the bandit movement, which is increasingly organised by him in the interior of the southeast area.

Turkey's neutrality is at present beyond question, but needs continuous watching.

http://der-fuehrer.org/reden/english/wa ... es/48.html

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Re: At what point did Germany lose WW2?

#1220

Post by jesk » 18 Sep 2019, 21:39

ljadw wrote:
18 Sep 2019, 21:31
jesk wrote:
18 Sep 2019, 21:21
ljadw wrote:
18 Sep 2019, 08:36
Forczyk is wrong,totally : he is comparing apples with oranges . Germany needed mobile forces for an advance to the AA line in August 1941, but the SU was not planning an advance to Berlin in August 1941, thus it needed less mobile forces,or better: its needs for mobile forces were smaller and they could do it without them .Besides : you don't need mobile forces to stop the advance of enemy mobile forces .
What is it? Meaningless conclusions. Everyone needs mobile units. :)
Infantry and artillery can stop tanks .The allied advance by mobile forces was stopped in September 1944,altrhough the German Westheer had few or no mobile units .
So what? At the forum talked a lot about static divisions. What is your opinion, the divisions in Norway are static?

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Re: At what point did Germany lose WW2?

#1221

Post by Duncan_M » 18 Sep 2019, 21:47

jesk wrote:
18 Sep 2019, 21:07
Duncan_M wrote:
17 Sep 2019, 18:52
the issues of replacements not coming even close in sufficient numbers to replace losses of manpower or equipment, the blatant proof that all pre-war estimates and assumptions regarding the USSR political vulnerabilities and basically everything about the Red Army were false, how utterly out-of-the-loop senior German generals were about their own units' conditions (including Guderian, but definitely Halder, who really had no clue what was actually happening on the Ostfront), and of course, the major infighting between Hitler and the OKH and Ostheer commanders in strategic objectives and the duplicitous means in which Halder and others did in order to get what they had wanted from long before the invasion started, Moscow.

I am still lost on why anyone in hindsight believes taking Moscow temporarily (it would not have been permanent) would have changed the course of war, let alone ended it. Even at the time, summer to autumn 1941, the strategic policy to take Moscow was entirely questionable, especially if one assumes that doing so would end the war. Suffice to say, Moscow was not Warsaw and it was not Paris, taking that capital would not suddenly cause Stalin to sue for peace, which is what the generals assumed would happen. That assumption existed during the planning for Barbarossa and never changed throughout the campaign, no matter how much it became apparent that conditions were opposite of pre-war assumptions.
This is all absurd. Hitler prevented the Germans from fighting. 4 million Soviet soldiers were captured in 1941. In 1942, Hitler banned the assault on Moscow and Leningrad.
Hitler prevented the Germans from fighting whom exactly? Assaulting Leningrad, a gigantic and well defended city, would have destroyed German forces. Assaulting Moscow with only mobile divisions with no infantry army support and the point of culmination in terms of their supply lines, reinforcements,etc. What would taking Moscow have done? Mobile divisions were unable to assault countless other cities, but you think a dozen very weakened ones with little artillery support and few infantry were going to assault the largest city in Russia, at the same time Stavka was massing forces for a front level counterattack? ROFL

And you keep ranting about POWS captured in 1941 as if they meant anything. And while they were very impressive, they were not impressive enough because the Red Army was able to keep fighting, to turn to the offensive, when the Germans ran out of steam. The Red Army fielded 600 divisions in 1941 alone, and most weren't destroyed, especially west of the Dnieper, which is where they were all supposed to be destroyed to make Barbarossa work. Ergo, Barbarossa couldn't have worked. 4 million POWs was not even remotely enough, not even close.
You do not keep up with the discussions on the forum. "Halder’s strategic incompetence” is just a smile.
Because you have a crush on Halder doesn't mean everyone does. His reputation did well until historians actually bothered validating his post war claims, almost none of which hold up to any sort of scrutiny.

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Re: At what point did Germany lose WW2?

#1222

Post by Duncan_M » 18 Sep 2019, 22:36

jesk wrote:
18 Sep 2019, 22:09

Your logic is childishly naive. I don’t see where to catch on for comment. Is Leningrad a well-defended city? Yes. In tank groups, there are not only mobile divisions, also infantry. Von Bock thought enough to capture. Then, probably, the capture of countless other cities. Worldwide!
A handful of panzer and mobile divisions, already seriously undermanned in tanks and especially in infantry, with barely any supply coming in especially artillery shells, were not going to storm a gigantic, well defended city. Do you understand how urban warfare works? Are you seriously suggesting that about a dozen weakened infantry divisions without sufficient artillery were sufficient to assault and take a MAJOR city held by an entire army group equivalent fighting from fixed positions? Leningrad was about 20x the size of Stalingrad, far more depth, and you're stating that it was a simple task to take it with five weakened divisions...

:lol:

I'm childishly naive? I am a former infantry staff sergeant who served most of my 24 months of combat time in urban areas, including fighting in large scale city wide clearing operations. How about you pal? You seemed to have skipped the day in high school they said that armies shouldn't fight in cities, and then given a reason.

Also, von Bock was commanding Army Group Center, von Leeb was commanding Army Group North. Why would Bock's opinion on Leningrad even had mattered?

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Re: At what point did Germany lose WW2?

#1223

Post by Duncan_M » 18 Sep 2019, 22:58

jesk wrote:
18 Sep 2019, 22:44
Duncan_M wrote:
18 Sep 2019, 22:36
jesk wrote:
18 Sep 2019, 22:09

Your logic is childishly naive. I don’t see where to catch on for comment. Is Leningrad a well-defended city? Yes. In tank groups, there are not only mobile divisions, also infantry. Von Bock thought enough to capture. Then, probably, the capture of countless other cities. Worldwide!
A handful of panzer and mobile divisions, already seriously undermanned in tanks and especially in infantry, with barely any supply coming in especially artillery shells, were not going to storm a gigantic, well defended city. Do you understand how urban warfare works? Are you seriously suggesting that about a dozen weakened infantry divisions without sufficient artillery were sufficient to assault and take a MAJOR city held by an entire army group equivalent fighting from fixed positions? Leningrad was about 20x the size of Stalingrad, far more depth, and you're stating that it was a simple task to take it with five weakened divisions...

:lol:

I'm childishly naive? I am a former infantry staff sergeant who served most of my 24 months of combat time in urban areas, including fighting in large scale city wide clearing operations. How about you pal? You seemed to have skipped the day in high school they said that armies shouldn't fight in cities, and then given a reason.

Also, von Bock was commanding Army Group Center, von Leeb was commanding Army Group North. Why would Bock's opinion on Leningrad even had mattered?
Stalingrad was not surrounded. The Soviets received a lot of reinforcements. In other cases, the capture always occurred quickly. Riga, Minsk, Kiev, Rostov, Kharkov. You are like a schoolboy who has not learned a lesson. Fantasy on the topic and it looks funny. "Urban areas". Good. Five. :)
All those cities you listed weren't heavily defended, nor remotely close in size to Leningrad and were either taken by coup de main or were lightly defended. Stalingrad didn't receive a lot of reinforcements, they received bare minimum to sustain against the largest German field army ever created, the bulk of reserves were shifted to massing for Operation Uranus. They had a tenuous supply line crossing the Vulga, just like at Leningrad, which was not fully encircled.

That's the second time you insulted me. If i'm a schoolboy, how is it I know that panzer corps arent meant for meat grinder urban warfare, which the Germans knew too, but you don't?

jesk
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Re: At what point did Germany lose WW2?

#1224

Post by jesk » 18 Sep 2019, 23:15

You have too much confidence in interpreters. Stahel moron. All that he writes. Glantz also does not understand much. Where is the truth? The diaries of von Bock, Halder. Memoirs of Manstein. Read through every phrase and try to understand.
Tanks in the city are effective. They are used, with varying degrees of success.

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Re: At what point did Germany lose WW2?

#1225

Post by David Thompson » 19 Sep 2019, 00:24

Two posts from jesk, containing personal insults directed at another forum member, were removed pursuant to forum rules and multiple prior warnings.

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Re: At what point did Germany lose WW2?

#1226

Post by philabos » 19 Sep 2019, 04:33

HistoryGeek2019 wrote:
18 Sep 2019, 10:03
philabos wrote:
17 Sep 2019, 04:39


Had the Norwegian campaign not taken place, would Chamberlain still be in power during summer 1940?

This is why I think Germany lost the war in April 1940 when they invaded Denmark and Norway. There was simply no way the international community was going to trust Hitler when, in addition to annexing Austria, Czechoslovakia and Poland, he refused to respect the neutrality of non-belligerent countries.

If Hitler hadn't invaded Denmark and Norway in April 1940, then Neville Chamberlaine would still be prime minister during the Battle of France in 1940. Unlike the way he's portrayed in Darkest Hour, Chamberlain was no dove. He wasn't going to cave in to Germany just because France fell. Nor was anyone else in Britain. But Britain still needed the support of the USA, and this was opened up in no small part due to Germany conquering most of the neutral countries in Western Europe. So in order to keep FDR out of the White House after 1940, Germany needs not only to stay out of Denmark and Norway, it also needs to respect the neutrality of Luxembourg, Belgium and the Netherlands. Germany's only hope for victory is to keep this a limited war with France and Britain.

But Hitler and a lot of his commanders, especially Raeder, had delusions of Germany becoming a world power, so they thought they could simply conquer one country after another and no one would be able to stop them.
I would not be so sure about not agreeing to peace if Chamberlain was still PM.
Although Halifax was committed to war in 1939, by 1940 not so sure. Of course he was buffeted by Norway and the Battle for France at the time, neither of which may have taken place if the western war was left in phony status. There was a great fear in both France and Britain of potential civilian casualties from air strikes. In the end, it primarily effected Britain and failed to drive them out of the war. On the other hand, losing hundreds of civilians night after night is significant.
I agree with you about Raeder, he did have grand delusions about expansions, but as I recall tried to get Hitler to focus on the Med and Africa instead of the East.

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Re: At what point did Germany lose WW2?

#1227

Post by AbollonPolweder » 19 Sep 2019, 14:28

jesk wrote:
10 Sep 2019, 20:14
TheMarcksPlan wrote:
10 Sep 2019, 05:34
At some level Hitler must have known he was fucked after Barbarossa failed, even if that level wasn't conscious. Every decision taken thereafter is increasingly the flailing of a cornered rabid animal more than rational strategic thought.
He himself failed Barbarossa. June 25, July 2, July 13, Hitler’s decisions against the will of the generals to attack Moscow. The last attempt was on August 18, and again Hitler’s ban.
Hitler forbade the offensive on the Valdai heights, explaining this by the relapse of the outdated tactics of the struggle for dominant heights.
"The Barbarossa Failure" contains hundreds of details that you ignore. Hitler ruined Barbarossa. The seizure of Soviet territory in the summer of 1941 could occur much faster.

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Where did you get this document? I have it in German from KTB OKW. The English version has an inaccurate translation.
Image
1. - english version : ,,,coal regions of the Don,,,
- german version: ... coal regions of the Donez ...
2. - english version: ... Our objectiv is not to push the Russian 5th Army back beyond the Dnepr...
- german version: ... Their obyectiv ( objectiv of the joint flanks - AP ) should be not ONLY to push the Russian 5th Army back ...
The German version also has inaccuracies, for example, Donau - Desna.
Last edited by AbollonPolweder on 19 Sep 2019, 15:16, edited 1 time in total.
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Better to lose with a clever than with a fool to find

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Re: At what point did Germany lose WW2?

#1228

Post by AbollonPolweder » 19 Sep 2019, 15:15

ljadw wrote:
14 Sep 2019, 14:40
...
3 What Jesk said is wrong : the mud did not stop the Germans, the Germans were stopped by the REd Army .
...
It's pretty simple to find out who is right: you or jesk. Open the KTB OKW for October, and you will find out what contributed more to the Wehrmacht stop near Moscow. Jesk is right: mud played a major role. But I must say that the OKH claimed that an offensive could be carried out in September-October. Only in the first week of October the weather was dry, then it was raining constantly.
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Re: At what point did Germany lose WW2?

#1229

Post by gaxsax » 20 Sep 2019, 00:09

Field Marshall Mainstein writes that the failure to defeat the British Expeditionary Force in France (1940) was a fatal mistake for Germany.
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Re: At what point did Germany lose WW2?

#1230

Post by Max Payload » 20 Sep 2019, 00:10

AbollonPolweder wrote:
19 Sep 2019, 14:28
Where did you get this document? I have it in German from KTB OKW. The English version has an inaccurate translation.
...
2. - english version: ... Our objectiv is not to push the Russian 5th Army back beyond the Dnepr...
- german version: ... Their obyectiv ( objectiv of the joint flanks - AP ) should be not ONLY to push the Russian 5th Army back ...
If your revised translation is correct, that sentence would require a qualifying clause; ‘... not ONLY ... but also ...’
And it would not then make sense for the next sentence to begin, ‘Instead, [it is] to destroy ...’.
Unless you are suggesting that this sentence is also mis-translated?

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