Hitler spares czechoslovakia.

[valadezaj]

In 1938 the world came close to war. Hitler wanted the sudetenland, a region of czechoslovakia that was inhabited mostly by German people. At a conference in Munich Britain and France gave Germany the territory in exchange for a promise to guarantee what was left of czechoslovakia. Later, in 1939, Hitler broke his promise and took the rest of the country anyway. Many people say that it was at that point that France and Britain began looking for war against Germany and that was why they opposed him when he wanted the city of Danzig. In your opinion how might things have gone had Hitler kept his promise and spared the rest of czechoslovakia.

[mel]

If hitler had spared czechslovakia and was forced not to go forth with claiming ground there then France and Britain wouldn't have gone to war with Germany over that. However, if hitler wasn't allowed to invade Czechslovakia or any other place under the fact that war would be declared on Germany if he did then it would have been directly against Hitler's foriegn policy or ideal of creating Lebensraum and expanding Germany. So if Czechslovakia wasn't invaded Hitler would have just gone somewhere else and been attacked by France and Britain.

[Futurist]

In 1938 the world came close to war. Hitler wanted the sudetenland, a region of czechoslovakia that was inhabited mostly by German people. At a conference in Munich Britain and France gave Germany the territory in exchange for a promise to guarantee what was left of czechoslovakia. Later, in 1939, Hitler broke his promise and took the rest of the country anyway. Many people say that it was at that point that France and Britain began looking for war against Germany and that was why they opposed him when he wanted the city of Danzig. In your opinion how might things have gone had Hitler kept his promise and spared the rest of czechoslovakia.

Well, that depends--does Nazi Germany still sign that agreement about oil with Romania in early 1939? After all, I have heard that this agreement angered Britain and France just as much, if not even more, than the Nazi German occupation of Czechia did.

[wm]

The problem was Germany wasn't quite safe in this scenario. By car it was a two-hour drive from the Polish/Czechoslovak border to Berlin. So, something bad could have happened...

source: Proti všem!

[BDV]

Well, it would have been "Hitler spares Czechia", as 1939 was even moreso an internal crisis than an external one, and the CzechoSlovak humpty-dumpty was bound for dissolution, much like the Yugoslavian one.

[maltesefalcon]

The Sudetanland grab was a ploy.

First, to see if France, Russia and/or UK would stand up to Hitler.
Only Russia voiced any real dissent.

Second grabbing the Sudetanland would put German forces behind the existing frontier defense lines, making it harder for the Czechs to defend the country.

Third he wanted as much of the Czech military equipment as possible. Overrunning the entire country would neuter the country's armed forces while giving the Germans plenty of modern tanks and artillery pieces. A good portion of the best tanks in the Wehrmacht in 1939-40 were Czech made.

Finally Hitler wanted the Skoda works and the country's mineral resources to feed it.

There is no way that the country would be spared invasion and occupation.

[pugsville]

no it was not a ploy, hitler actually wanted a war, he wanted to beat up some small country.

he thought Britain and France would NOT stand up, no need t test he knew they would not in his mind.

he did not think of Czech arms, factories or resources.

[Futurist]

no it was not a ploy, hitler actually wanted a war, he wanted to beat up some small country.

he thought Britain and France would NOT stand up, no need t test he knew they would not in his mind.

he did not think of Czech arms, factories or resources.

Wanted a war for exactly what purpose, though?

[pugsville]

Why does he need a purpose, the thug beats uo the guy because he enjoys it, the robbery is incidental.

Just my opinion he wanted war because he wanted to have a war. he wanted to beat another country up. He was disappointed that their was a negotiated settlement .

Does there have to some deep long held strategy?

[BDV]

Just my opinion he wanted war because he wanted to have a war. he wanted to beat another country up. He was disappointed that their was a negotiated settlement .

Does there have to some deep long held strategy?

Any factual basis/evidence for this opinion?

[pugsville]

I did start with "just my opinion" it's the overall impression I have that Hitler wanted to be a warlord. much like Mussolini wanted a war a conquest. hitler was disappointed, to miss futon some actual shooting in 1938.

just my impression of Hitler. noting really to back it up.

[Futurist]

I did start with "just my opinion" it's the overall impression I have that Hitler wanted to be a warlord. much like Mussolini wanted a war a conquest. hitler was disappointed, to miss futon some actual shooting in 1938.

just my impression of Hitler. noting really to back it up.

OK. Fair enough, I suppose.

[Helmut0815]

If Hitler had not occupied Czechoslovakia in March 1939 the Wehrmacht would not have gotten armour, artillery and other equipment from the Czechoslovak army. He also wouldn't have taken the Czechoslovak heavy industries, e.g. the Škoda Works in Pilsen.

As we know, in reality the Wehrmacht depended a lot on Czech equipment like the Skoda 38 tanks. Under this circumstances, would Hitler's Wehrmacht be able to start a Blitzkrieg without looted Czech equipment and without the production capacities of the Czech industry against Poland in 1939 or France & the low countries in 1940?

In my opinion, the war against Poland would have lasted much longer and war against France would have been unpromising or would have resulted in stalemate like in WWI. So what's your opinion?

best regards


Helmut

[maltesefalcon]

If Hitler had not occupied Czechoslovakia in March 1939 the Wehrmacht would not have gotten armour, artillery and other equipment from the Czechoslovak army. He also wouldn't have taken the Czechoslovak heavy industries, e.g. the Škoda Works in Pilsen.

As we know, in reality the Wehrmacht depended a lot on Czech equipment like the Skoda 38 tanks. Under this circumstances, would Hitler's Wehrmacht be able to start a Blitzkrieg without looted Czech equipment and without the production capacities of the Czech industry against Poland in 1939 or France & the low countries in 1940?

In my opinion, the war against Poland would have lasted much longer and war against France would have been unpromising or would have resulted in stalemate like in WWI. So what's your opinion?

best regards


Helmut

I guess I would have to agree as I posted the same thoughts a few posts above more than two years ago...

[Carl Schwamberger]

The Sudetanland grab was a ploy.

First, to see if France, Russia and/or UK would stand up to Hitler.
Only Russia voiced any real dissent.

Second grabbing the Sudetanland would put German forces behind the existing frontier defense lines, making it harder for the Czechs to defend the country.

Third he wanted as much of the Czech military equipment as possible. Overrunning the entire country would neuter the country's armed forces while giving the Germans plenty of modern tanks and artillery pieces. A good portion of the best tanks in the Wehrmacht in 1939-40 were Czech made.

Finally Hitler wanted the Skoda works and the country's mineral resources to feed it.

There is no way that the country would be spared invasion and occupation.

Hypothetically if access to all that is given by the Cezchs then Germany does not need to 'occupy'. That is the Cezchs trade off their best arms, a significant portion of future arms production and other industrial output, ect... for independence from German occupation administration.