Avalancheon wrote: ↑24 Feb 2020, 21:17
It is only logical to conclude that the German army was more proficient than the British and Americans. Far from being a reductio ad absurdam, as you characterise it. The idea that they were a superior fighting force can be supported by the fact that their soldiers and officers received more thorough and rigorous training, and by the differences in their command principles and troop replacement systems.
Sorry, I was being too telegraphic I suppose? The reductio ad absurdam is the popular notion, despite all evidence, that the Germans were always "more proficient" when the evidence actually is they were on average more proficient. It usually goes along with hagiographic histories that extol the German fighting man holding a bulwark against Bolshevism and other such claptrap.
Were they a "superior fighting force"? Superior to what? The armed forces that defeated them?
Did they receive "more thorough and rigorous training"? They were intended too, but that broke down frequently, viz the complaints of poor quality junior officers and NCOs following the Polish and French campaigns, the wholesale re-jiggering of personnel during the winter of 1940/1941 to improve frontline personnel quality, and then the increasingly desperate measures to get replacements forward as the war progressed and German manpower eroded away. It's also how they were able to do that which matters. Those "useless" (in certain posters worldview) divisions in France made an excellent pool for dumping raw recruits into and extracting trained personnel. Ditto using the Reserve Divisionen both as training and occupation troops. That was part and parcel of their replacement system. However, by fall 1944 that system was breaking down.
In any case, the German replacement system would not have worked for the U.S. Army in World War II.
The difference in the command "system" is that the Germans more or less practiced what they preached, while the British tended to stay in the prewar lanes of the FSR and the Americans parroted German doctrine, but had troubles practicing what they preached until the mass of the Army gained about a years expereince.
It can also be supported by the fact that the Heer was able to hold their own against an enemy that greatly outnumbered them, had a massive superiority in material, total control of the air, and the ability to read their mail. The fact that they could still win battles in such circumstances supports the conclusion that the Germans were a more skilled, proficient army.
There is the not so small problem that the Western Allies first had to get across oceans to get at the Germans, deploy well-equipped but inexperienced armies against them, maintain naval superiority, and achieve and maintain air superiority against them. Or that the main ground army they faced was thrashed by them almost to destruction in their first year in combat and had to be re-built from ashes.
All joking aside, this was an important consideration. Wikipedia mentions that during an interogation of Hermann Goering, an officer from the OSS asked him why the Germans did not use chemical weapons at Normandy. His answer was that: ''the Wehrmacht was dependent upon horse-drawn transport to move supplies to their combat units, and had never been able to devise a gas mask horses could tolerate; the versions they developed would not pass enough pure air to allow the horses to pull a cart. Thus, gas was of no use to the German Army under most conditions.''
Because Dicke Hermann knew that of course...
Yes, seriously, the reason the Germans did not deploy their large arsenal of chemical weapons, especially nerve agents, was primarily because they knew the Allies had a large and probably larger arsenal of conventional chemical weapons and they had to suppose, given their lack of hard intelligence, that they also had nerve agents. Given that the Allies also had a much more robust system for delivery of massed chemicals against the Germans and the known limitations to the use of chemical weapons - they hurt you almost as much as your enemy - they wisely chose not to indulge in first use, while preparing for a possible enemy first use.
No one said otherwise.
Excellent. It always pays to be clear, otherwise you can get confused by which reductio ad absurdam is meant.
Are you adamantly opposed to such discussion?
No, so long as it doesn't hie off in odd diversions about Wunderwaffe and other Fanbois subjects.
Indeed, if this were not so, the Allies would never have won the war.
Again with the absolutes Moriarty!