Did Joseph Goebbels ever describe any groups as “subhumans” in propaganda?

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Totenkomf
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Re: Did Joseph Goebbels ever describe any groups as “subhumans” in propaganda?

#31

Post by Totenkomf » 10 Feb 2022, 19:17

George L Gregory wrote:
10 Feb 2022, 19:08
Totenkomf wrote:
01 Feb 2022, 13:04
George L Gregory wrote:
01 Feb 2022, 13:01
Totenkomf wrote:
01 Feb 2022, 12:57
Seemigly Baarová saw Goebbels charming intelligent individual. But by striking a relationship with Goebbels she got to act on the German Films as she was an Czech and a Slav.
Goebbels wasn't an anti-Slav, he even referred to the Bulgarians as "friends".
No but the other Nazi leaders saw Czechs as Slavs so that's why Goebbels ended his relationship with Baarová on Hitler's orders in 1941.
Czechs were regarded as Aryans.

Goebbels didn’t end the relationship because she was a Czech/Slav, he ended it because the whole thing went against what the Nazis told the German people to strive for - a loyal family with lots of children.
Yes of he didn't end the relationship for racial reasons but for publical like Hitler's order. I thought the Nazis considered the Czechs as Slavs. And they speak a west-slavic language.
"Befehl ist Befehl"

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Re: Did Joseph Goebbels ever describe any groups as “subhumans” in propaganda?

#32

Post by Topspeed » 11 Feb 2022, 09:12

Is ö pronounciation unknown ?


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Totenkomf
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Re: Did Joseph Goebbels ever describe any groups as “subhumans” in propaganda?

#33

Post by Totenkomf » 11 Feb 2022, 09:23

Topspeed wrote:
11 Feb 2022, 09:12
Is ö pronounciation unknown ?
No, but most languages do not mostly use ö, like the people who speak English, for example the British and the Americans.

:idea:
Last edited by Totenkomf on 11 Feb 2022, 09:35, edited 1 time in total.
"Befehl ist Befehl"

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Re: Did Joseph Goebbels ever describe any groups as “subhumans” in propaganda?

#34

Post by Topspeed » 11 Feb 2022, 09:31

Totenkomf wrote:
11 Feb 2022, 09:23
Topspeed wrote:
11 Feb 2022, 09:12
Is ö pronounciation unknown ?
No, but most languages do not use ö, like the people who speak English, for example the British and the Americans.

:idea:
There is an easy fix: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=7MgoPB4UokQ

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Totenkomf
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Re: Did Joseph Goebbels ever describe any groups as “subhumans” in propaganda?

#35

Post by Totenkomf » 11 Feb 2022, 09:36

Topspeed wrote:
11 Feb 2022, 09:31
Totenkomf wrote:
11 Feb 2022, 09:23
Topspeed wrote:
11 Feb 2022, 09:12
Is ö pronounciation unknown ?
No, but most languages do not use ö, like the people who speak English, for example the British and the Americans.

:idea:
There is an easy fix: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=7MgoPB4UokQ
Well then ö is not unknown. Maybe the better word for the usage of ö in english is not mostly used.
"Befehl ist Befehl"

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Topspeed
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Re: Did Joseph Goebbels ever describe any groups as “subhumans” in propaganda?

#36

Post by Topspeed » 11 Feb 2022, 10:23

Totenkomf wrote:
11 Feb 2022, 09:36
Topspeed wrote:
11 Feb 2022, 09:31
Totenkomf wrote:
11 Feb 2022, 09:23
Topspeed wrote:
11 Feb 2022, 09:12
Is ö pronounciation unknown ?
No, but most languages do not use ö, like the people who speak English, for example the British and the Americans.

:idea:
There is an easy fix: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=7MgoPB4UokQ
Well then ö is not unknown. Maybe the better word for the usage of ö in english is not mostly used.
Burger...first after B is Ö.

I could write burger as böögö...and everyone here would understand it.

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Totenkomf
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Re: Did Joseph Goebbels ever describe any groups as “subhumans” in propaganda?

#37

Post by Totenkomf » 11 Feb 2022, 10:26

Topspeed wrote:
11 Feb 2022, 10:23
Totenkomf wrote:
11 Feb 2022, 09:36
Topspeed wrote:
11 Feb 2022, 09:31
Totenkomf wrote:
11 Feb 2022, 09:23
Topspeed wrote:
11 Feb 2022, 09:12
Is ö pronounciation unknown ?
No, but most languages do not use ö, like the people who speak English, for example the British and the Americans.

:idea:
There is an easy fix: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=7MgoPB4UokQ
Well then ö is not unknown. Maybe the better word for the usage of ö in english is not mostly used.
Burger...first after B is Ö.

I could write burger as böögö...and everyone here would understand it.
In Pronouciation, yes. I am not sure about other forum users undestanding the böögö, but maybe.
"Befehl ist Befehl"

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Topspeed
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Re: Did Joseph Goebbels ever describe any groups as “subhumans” in propaganda?

#38

Post by Topspeed » 11 Feb 2022, 12:36

Totenkomf wrote:
11 Feb 2022, 10:26
Topspeed wrote:
11 Feb 2022, 10:23
Totenkomf wrote:
11 Feb 2022, 09:36
Topspeed wrote:
11 Feb 2022, 09:31
Totenkomf wrote:
11 Feb 2022, 09:23


No, but most languages do not use ö, like the people who speak English, for example the British and the Americans.

:idea:
There is an easy fix: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=7MgoPB4UokQ
Well then ö is not unknown. Maybe the better word for the usage of ö in english is not mostly used.
Burger...first after B is Ö.

I could write burger as böögö...and everyone here would understand it.
In Pronouciation, yes. I am not sure about other forum users undestanding the böögö, but maybe.
How many would understand if said Lets iit sam böögös ?

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Totenkomf
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Posts: 867
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Re: Did Joseph Goebbels ever describe any groups as “subhumans” in propaganda?

#39

Post by Totenkomf » 11 Feb 2022, 12:37

Topspeed wrote:
11 Feb 2022, 12:36
Totenkomf wrote:
11 Feb 2022, 10:26
Topspeed wrote:
11 Feb 2022, 10:23
Totenkomf wrote:
11 Feb 2022, 09:36
Topspeed wrote:
11 Feb 2022, 09:31


There is an easy fix: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=7MgoPB4UokQ
Well then ö is not unknown. Maybe the better word for the usage of ö in english is not mostly used.
Burger...first after B is Ö.

I could write burger as böögö...and everyone here would understand it.
In Pronouciation, yes. I am not sure about other forum users undestanding the böögö, but maybe.
How many would understand if said Lets iit sam böögös ?
Well if you say it like that, then they undestand it.
"Befehl ist Befehl"

George L Gregory
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Posts: 1083
Joined: 13 Nov 2020, 16:08
Location: Britain

Re: Did Joseph Goebbels ever describe any groups as “subhumans” in propaganda?

#40

Post by George L Gregory » 11 Feb 2022, 15:09

Totenkomf wrote:
10 Feb 2022, 19:17
Yes of he didn't end the relationship for racial reasons but for publical like Hitler's order. I thought the Nazis considered the Czechs as Slavs. And they speak a west-slavic language.
Yes, the Nazis did consider the Czechs to be Slavs.

Slavic people, like Germanic people, were considered a mixture of races. Czechs were regarded as having a substantial amount of Nordic people and were suitable to be Germanised.

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