Welcome to the club!Takao wrote:Put up or shut up time. I call your bluff.



Welcome to the club!Takao wrote:Put up or shut up time. I call your bluff.
1 How much men did France need to occupy Morocco ? They had more than 100000 men in Morocco in 1919 And how much time did they need ? 22 years .And Germany had no 22 years .Ironmachine wrote: ↑11 Oct 2022 07:37And why would Hitler have to send 500000 men to invade Morocco?ljadw wrote:Hitler could not send 500000 men to invade Morocco over the sea or through Spain .He had no fleet in the Mediterranean ,
Actually, the distance Madrid-Agadir is about 1520 km by road and about 1200 in a straight line. Why are I not surprised that you are lying again?ljadw wrote:FYI : the distance Madrid-Agadir is some 6000 km .![]()
By the way, the distance Berlin-Varsovia is
And why would Spain declare war on France after obtaining Morocco? You may be crazy, but the Spanish authorities of the time were not.ljadw wrote:Spain could not invade Morocco and demanded that Germany would do it and give it to Spain ,and AFTER this,when the war was over, Spain would declare war on France .
Yes, what happened to the Spanish Army in North Morocco? AFAIK, Spain conserved Spanish Morocco until the independence of Morocco, so your argument seems to be a bit stupid.ljadw wrote:And, not only could Spain not invade Morocco, but if it received Morocco from France or Germany , it could even not conserve Morocco .
See what happened to the Spanish Army in North Morocco .
That's only your opinion, and your opinion, without evidence to support it, has no value as proof. Back up your claim! Show evidence!ljadw wrote:Spain asked only Morocco to have an excuse to be able to say to Germany : we can't enter the war .
Long time member. He is Ljad over on WW2F.com but thankfully has not been active since 2017.Ironmachine wrote: ↑11 Oct 2022 07:40Welcome to the club!Takao wrote:Put up or shut up time. I call your bluff.
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Spain asked Morocco . It could not conquer Morocco itself . Who remained ?Germany .
The French hgad only 59.000 men in Morocco in 1924. Anyway, how many men and how much time France needed to occupy Morocco has nothing to do with the points being adressed here.1 How much men did France need to occupy Morocco ? They had more than 100000 men in Morocco in 1919 And how much time did they need ? 22 years .And Germany had no 22 years .
France signed the armistice of 22 June 1940. Why would have Spain had to declare war on France after that date when France had already surrendered to Germany?ljadw wrote:3 Spain promised to enter the war on the German side : that means a DOW on France, which could happen only after the defeat of France by Germany .
And at the battle of Uarga, France lost about 2500 dead, 7500 wounded and 1200 MIA, but they kept Morocco. So what?ljadw wrote:4 At the battle of Annual, Spain lost more than 13000 men . How would Spain occupy and pacify the whole of Morocco that costed France 22 years to occupy and pacify ?
Again, your opinion about what Spain knew is not a proof of what Spain knew.ljadw wrote:5 Spain asked Morocco while it knew that France would not give up Morocco,thus that it could not have Morocco and Morocco was one of the Spanish demands for a DOW on France .
The number 2 you have put before that statement means that this has something to do with your lie that "the distance Madrid-Agadir is some 6000 km"?ljadw wrote:2 The length of the coast of Morocco is some 2500 km and an invading (Spanish or German ) army had to advance along the coast,because of supply problems .
Spain asked that Germany would give her Morocco, this means that Germany had to conquer Morocco .
SIGHIronmachine wrote: ↑12 Oct 2022 07:53The French hgad only 59.000 men in Morocco in 1924. Anyway, how many men and how much time France needed to occupy Morocco has nothing to do with the points being adressed here.1 How much men did France need to occupy Morocco ? They had more than 100000 men in Morocco in 1919 And how much time did they need ? 22 years .And Germany had no 22 years .
In any case, Germany had no need to occupy Morocco, at leat not in 1940.
France signed the armistice of 22 June 1940. Why would have Spain had to declare war on France after that date when France had already surrendered to Germany?ljadw wrote:3 Spain promised to enter the war on the German side : that means a DOW on France, which could happen only after the defeat of France by Germany .
Nothing to do with the point you are being asked to back up with evidence.ljadw wrote:1 The Germans said that they could not fulfill the Spanish demands .
That's what you have to prove, and you have repeatedly failed to provide any evidence or source.2 Spain knew that Germany could not fulfill their demands : monthly600000 tons of grain, which is daily 20 trains ,was impossible .Especially as their demand dated from February 1941 and should start in March 1941 .
Nothing to do with the point you are being asked to back up with evidence.ljadw wrote:3 Spain did not get this grain,but still did not collaps, thus Spain did not need this grain .
It's not evident in any way. Provide evidence that the demands were an excuse to not join the Axis.ljadw wrote:4 If you demand something that you don't need and you can't get and in exchange you promise to enter the war at an unknown date (Spain refused to say that if its demands were fulfilled, it would join the Axis ) it is obvious that your demands are an excuse to not join the Axis .
Even considering going and returning, you are wrong. The distance Madrid-Agadir-Madrid is not 6000 km.ljadw wrote:About the distance Madrid -Agadir, I see that I forgot to add ''going and returning ''
Not true.ljadw wrote:,but your figures are also wrong ,as the today distance Madrid-Ceuta is 800 km ( it was bigger 80 years ago ) and the coast length is more than 2000 km ,it is obvious that going and returning was some 6000 km .
Spain never demanded that Germany would conquer Morocco. Again, provide evidence of that if you have it.And, the Spanish demand that Germany would
A conquer Morocco
B give it than to Spain ,while Spain had not the means to occupy Morocco
was also something totally impossible and absurd :Germany could conquer Morocco only after the defeat of France and Britain ,and than, a Spanish entry would not be needed ,thus a German conquest of Morocco would not be needed .
Spain had no need to declare war on France as long as there was an armistice between Germany and France. What's more, Spain had no need to declare war on France even if the war is resumed between France and Germany. However, this has nothing to do with the point I have repeatedly asked you to back up with evidence.ljadw wrote:Spain did not declare war on France before June 22 1940.After June 22 1940,it said that it would declare war on France after its demands would be fulfilled, somewhere in 1941 or 1942 .
Its demands could only be fulfilled after the war was over .